Q: What is the ruling on men physically forcing their wives into intimacy? I know women should not refuse, but in the case that she does, can her husband force her given that this will harm her (physically and mentally) and make her resent him?
Q: Is it okay for a husband and wife to see each others body naked and see their private parts?
Q: Can I touch my private part on my wife's body or chest? Is there any gunah or not?
Q: What is the ruling of a husband and wife showing affection to one another in public? Is there any harm if they hold hands, hug each other, or even kiss each other on the cheek and forehead in public?
Q: Is it permissible for a man or a woman to do intercourse if he or she is impure with wet dream without ghusl?
Q: My question is what to do if my husband ask for anal intercourse? It is notable that he is suffering from satyriasis which is known as sex addiction according sex therapist. So if he can't get cured from this, is it permissible for wife to ask for a divorce? Husband keeps saying that he will commit suicide if the wife leaves him?
Q: If someone is impure due to a wet dream, so in that situation without ghusl, can he have intercourse with his wife?
Q: Is it allowed in Islam to bath with your husband or wife in a bathroom which also has toilet (wc) in it.
Q: What is the importance of sex in Islam. Is it allowed for husband and wife to remain without sex for couple of years.
Q: I'm a high school girl and I have some questions about some things written in my Islamic studies book. There is a verse that goes "Whenever a man calls his wife to his bed and she refuses and then he passes the night in an angry mood, the angel curses her till she gets up at dawn" It is also written repeatedly that a woman must be sexually submissive to her husband and she may not even fast without his permission because he cannot have intercourse with her while she is fasting. This greatly distressed me. Allah is the most Fair and Knowing and I know I couldn't begin to understand His reasoning. However I'd like if you could explain to me why there doesn't seem to be the concept of consent on a woman's behalf in marriage. The common claim that "men get more sexually frustrated" does not seem to be enough as I think that he should still take in account his wife's consent and if he is abusive because of this that is no excuse.