The position and rewards of women in deen

1 week ago By user2

Q: There is an Islamic page on facebook. When I joined this page, I came to know that there are men who insult women based on some Ahaadith. Again and again, they mention that women are “naaqisat-ul-aql.” If a woman in the comments section tries to explain the context of the Hadith, they call her a feminist and say, “It clearly says that women are naaqisat-ul-aql.” 

They also repeatedly post the Hadith that women will be the majority of the inhabitants of Hell, and that women will be the majority of the followers of Dajjaal. Once, they even said that Allah did not consider women capable (in an insulting way with laughing emoji), which is why He did not choose women to be prophets. 

They also mention the Aayah in which Allah allows husbands to beat their wives in the case of nushuz. When a woman tries to explain that it should not be excessive or cause injury or scars, some men say that they can beat their wives with their hands as much as they want, as long as they don't use a belt or something else that could cause a scar. 

They also say that a woman has to obey her husband in every matter. They do accept that she can refuse if he asks her to do something against Islam, but otherwise, they say that if a husband tells his wife to clean the house in the middle of the night, she has to obey, and if she refuses, she would be considered naashizah. 

I am no longer part of that page because I felt really disappointed and disturbed by what I was reading. 

I know my question is very long, but could you please explain these Ahadith to me? Do men really think like this about women? 

Could you also please explain the Aayah about obeying husbands? Does a wife have to blindly obey her husband? What things are considered nushuz? For example, if a husband tells his wife to clean the house in the middle of the night and she refuses, would she be considered naashizah? 

And what if a husband is not fulfilling his wife's rights? What options does the wife have in that situation?

Charging a person one's expenses to deliver a loan to him

1 week ago By user2

Q: With regards to these two fatwas, I have the following questions: 

https://muftionline.co.za/node/36923
https://muftionline.co.za/node/36922

My questions is as follows:

وَفِي الشَّرِيعَةِ: الرِّبَا: هُوَ الْفَضْلُ الْخَالِي عَنْ الْعِوَضِ الْمَشْرُوطِ فِي الْبَيْعِ؛ المبسوط للسرخسي

How will you explain this definition of riba in relation to the mas’alah in question? 

I have three objections: 

1. The extra amount is not necessarily خاليًا عن العوض (free of consideration). There is a service or benefit being provided in return for the amount charged. So how can this extra amount be described as a “surplus without consideration”? 

2. The extra amount is not مشروطًا في العقد (stipulated in the contract). The definition specifically refers to an excess that is stipulated in the sale. If this extra amount was not stipulated as a condition in the original contract, then how does it fall under this definition of riba? 

3. More importantly, how would it even be possible to pay the bank transaction fees in the first place? According to the qiyās presented in the mas’alah, paying the bank a fee gives them an additional benefit. If every additional benefit received by the lender is treated as riba on this basis, then what would be the basis for allowing bank transaction fees?

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