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Black Friday sales

Q: Regarding Black Friday, I understand that it is to do with the kuffaar, however is it permissible for one to take advantage of the sales? 

Woman covering her hair in the house

Q: I've come across on Muftionline that Mufti Saheb had mentioned regarding a person covering their hair during eating is something that Mufti Saheb had not come across. Is there any virtue that a woman covers her hair during eating? Anything about drawing barakah? There are quite a lot of people who say to cover the hair whilst eating. Another thing, like the above, is there any virtue in a woman covering her hair whilst sleeping? 

Hiring out one's animal for breeding purposes

Q: In one of your Fatwa's on your website (27483) Mufti Saheb had mentioned that to charge others to use a stallion as a stud is impermissible. Does Mufti Saheb mean that hiring out ones stallion to impregnate someone else's mare is impermissible? We breed, and sell dogs for security purposes, so if the above is the case, is it impermissible that one sends their dog to get impregnated by someone else's dog? One will have to pay for this. 

Nikaah via social media or video call

Q: Can one perform Nikah telephonically, or via any other form of social media i.e skype, telephone, video chat, or video call? Is this permissible?

Using kinaaya words of talaaq

Q: Are the word s(leave) or (chor dena in urdu) kinaya words or sareeh words? I live in USA and we use these words in so many different meanings in both english and urdu.

For example, I have dropped off my brother at airport (in urdu, mein ne apne bhai ko airport per chor dia hai), he has quit smoking (Us ne cigrette peena chor dia hai), He has left the job (Us ne job chor di hai), I am leaving for work (Mein kaam per ja raha hoon), I have left my brother to my uncle's house for couple of hours, etc.

We use these words in general in our routine life. I have watched few videos on youtube, some of them say it is sareeh depending upon their urf like in Pakistan and some say it is kinaya. Some say that if a word has more than one meaning then the intention is required. We don't know what is the urf here in USA because here the Muslim community is from so many different Muslim countries around the world and they speak different languages. Can a person use these words for his wife if he has no intention of divorce. Please guide me about it. I asked this question from my family elders who are living here in USA for years, they say these kind of words require intention. It becomes so difficult sometimes to talk with my wife because of the choice of these words. Please guide me about it.

Performing qadha of the sunnah of fajr salaah

Q: If the fajar prayer is qaza. Do I need to pray only farz for qaza of Fajr or both Farz and Sunnah? 

Estimating one's qadha salaah

Q: I have been praying since my teenage years but I still missed some prayers at my early age. How can I complete those qaza prayers? 

Calling out the azaan before salaah

Q: I live in USA and the Masjids are too far from our houses. We don't hear the sound of Azaan at home. We have an Azaan clock at home but at my workplace I don't have an Azaan clock.

My question is that if we dont hear the Azaan and its the time of prayer, do we need to say Azaan before prayer? 

Not having a ghusal before fajr due to the water being cold

Q: I had sex last night and I did not pray because the weather was cold. It wasn't too cold because there is a source of warming the water but its usage is limited. I couldn't warm the water till 8:00 am so I prayed after 8:00 am. Was it correct?

Can a person give up the right of tafweez-e-talaaq?

Q: 15 years ago I married my first wife, who was my first cousin. In my Nikah agreement there was talaq-e-tafweez that I was not told about. I accepted and signed in front of two Muslim witnesses. Later when I read my Nikah certificate and saw that my wife was given the right to divorce me and I was not told about it during the time of Nikah, I was not happy. If I had known, I would not have agreed for her to have the right to divorce me. So I explained to her, and she signed another document in front of two Muslim witnesses (I believe one witness was same as during the Nikah). The document stated that she gives up her right to divorce me, and she and the two witnesses signed also.

Fives years later, we had some disagreements and she asked for divorce and I love her very much so I refused to divorce her. Therefore, she went to the court and got divorced from the court and mailed me the divorce papers. She said that she asked an imam and he said it was okay for her to divorce me. Now both her, and I are married to different people. I still miss her and wonder if our marriage is still valid. I never divorced her with my words, actions, or in writing. Not even as a joke.

My question is, are we still married since I never divorced her because she gave up her right to divorce me? And is her Nikah with the other guy valid or no? Since I was not told about talaq-e-tafweez during my Nikah, did she have the right to divorce me before she gave it up? If she had the right to divorce me, did she give up that right by signing a new document in front of two Muslim witnesses that said she’s giving up her right to divorce me?

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