Talaaq

Written divorce

Q: Two days ago I went to a lawyer and told him the details of dispute between me and my wife. After listening, he advised me to make a divorce deed. I agreed and thought that this divorce deed will not be in effective unless I pronounced it verbally or orally in front of my wife. After signing the divorce deed, the lawyer told me to verbally / orally say talak to my wife as a proof but I did not said any thing except I said "just leave it, it is OK". Then he told me to arrange two witness to mentioned in the divorce deed. I went to my two friends and asked them to sign but even here in front of my witnesses I did not said I talak my wife. I got back to my lawyer with the signed document and after examining he said to me that now your wife is haram on you. I was shocked how it could be possible when I have not said talak in front of my wife or anyone else. I was puzzled and the lawyer told me to send the divorce deed to your wife's house. I posted the divorce deed but I did not want to send this divorce deed to my wife. I had thought and my intentions were to just warned my wife by sending the divorce deed and not really divorce her. No doubt I was angry with her
attitude but my intentions were not to take the matters so far. I thought this way she will get back to me and I will tear the divorce deed later. Now please tell me is talak/divorce has been implemented according to law and sharia? Is my wife haram on me?

Does the following construe a divorce

Q: In an argument with my wife she said she wants a divorce. Later that day I sent these text messages. If you want to leave me speak to your dad, you know what to do. If you want to leave me, go and get  khula, go to the shariah council. I had no intention of divorce. In a later message I also said I have no intention of leaving you. Has divorce taken place.

Halaala

Q: If a woman is divorced three times, I heard she can do halala with a third person and then return to her first husband (after completing the iddah). I know that it is not permissible to make halala a condition in the wedding contract, but it is permissible for her to informally agree with the man (the mohallil) to make halala (by speaking to him), without formally specifying it as a condition in the contract and without announcing it publically? The intention of both parties would be to make halalah so that the lady is able to resume her life with her former husband and reunite her with her family.

Suspending talaaq upon the wife listening to zikr

Q: I got into a fight with my wife for listening to zikr of Allah Ta'ala and it got to this that I told her that if she will listen to it again then I will give her talaaq. Then I left for mosque but when I came back from mosque I appolgize for using these words. I have used this word once before also but I had no intention of saying it, it just came out in anger. Can you please let us know where we stand and can I give some kuffara for using this?