Talaaq

Q: My husband is from another country. He married me here as a second wife. When he returned to his country his first wife got angry and demanded that he divorce me. He chose her and her children. Together they went to a sheikh and asked for divorce. He wrote I divorce Layla (my name) 3 times. His wife then took the letter and sent it to me with his cousin. My husband tells me that the divorce was not valid and we have been married for 3 years now and for 3 years I did not see him but he says we are still married. I am a revert and I don't understand. Please give me an answer to my
problem.

Q: What is talaq-e-baain? What are that unlear words of talaq and if man says that such as from now "I don't want to keep any kind of relation with you" then after two three days our problem gets resolved and again the same thing occurs many time. So is it a talaq forever I mean is she haram on me? If I want to keep her what is ruling?

Q: Will the talaaq take place if my husband suspends the talaaq upon any action that he does. For example, he says "If I do a certain action, then my wife is divorced", then if he does that particular action, will the talaaq take place? Similarly, what is the Shar'ee ruling if my husband suspends the talaaq upon any action that I do? For example, he says "If you do a certain action, you will be divorced". Through me doing that particular action, will the talaaq take place?

Q: If a man does not have jima' with his wife but foreplay etc takes place, will she be regarded as ghair madkhool bihaa when it comes to talaaq?
Meaning can he give her talaaq in haidh and would she be baain after one talaaq?

Q: My wife was married before and her husband had passed away , after 4 months of the death of her late husband we got married, my wife came into the marriage with a lot of anger towards life and also couldn't understand why the almighty took her late husband, this made huge fights in our marriage and I gave her 3 talaaqs at one stage. We chose to ignore these because it was said out of anger I also said it to her to scare her and never meant it, as our marriage continued it got worse and on 3 other occasions I said talaaq, but none with any intention. I'm a very emotional man and have a lot of anger. My wife or I never ever left the house because she had no where to go, she is 4 months pregnant now and we having a baby girl, we still live together, but of lately I been seeking the truth, I read somewhere that if you say talaq out of anger it doesn't count? I also read that a woman must agree to a talaq? As women have rights in marriage as we'll. According to some references it must be done in good honour and never labour the next partner? I feel like the talaqs were said out of my own immaturity and my wife shouldn't be punished for it. Are we divorced?

Q: If a husband and wife are having an argument and the husband tells the wife something like, "well then go!" But he doesn't say something like to your mother's house etc, does طلاق باءن fall?

Q: My husband and I have been married since last year July. During this time we have had a tumultuous relationship whereby he verbally gave me talaaq on more than three different occasions. We assumed it was said out of anger and no other processes where taken like the 3 month waiting period or witnesses to say we tried reconciling. I am currently 4 months pregnant and we do not wish to be divorced, for the baby's sake of course and because we wish to have a life together. We have consulted two moulanas and they say our marriage was over with the first talaq given. My question is if the proper process for idaah or that waiting period for reconciliation was not given to us how can our divorce be valid (I do know about the viewpoint that if its said out of anger it is not accepted and we do take how serious the words are, we have both made mistakes). Is there any way forward for us, can he ask for "ruju" because we were not given  information on the proper process. We have been together since, but my husband is no longer in the house due to the moulana saying its haram. For our future and the baby is there a way to reconcile? We do not want to be divorced and even after the talaq was verbally said in anger we would reconcile. Please help me with information and a way forward?

Q: I am a Palestinian Muslim living in Norway. I have a problem. I sent my wife an sms message to divorce her. The message clearly says that I divorced her. Is an sms message considered a valid method for divorce, exactly as divorcing her face-to-face? I now regret sending her this message, is there any hope for returning to her as I desire now. (By the way, I divorced my wife 2 times before face-to-face but this third time was via sms message.) I did this because she ignored me and refused to answer my phone calls or reply to my sms messages, and therefore I wanted to avenge her.

Q: My question is during a fight with my wife, she said that you are my real brother and it happened again after six months. So should I pay kaffaara for this or what should we do for this?

Q: My husband gave me first talaq in 2005 when I was in UK with him. He sent me to Pakistan a year ago and gave me 2 conditional talaqs, which he said would become valid in case I travelled to UK with out his permission. The exact words he used in his email were 'I give you two conditional talaaqs. It means that the moment you set foot on the soil of UK, or republic of ireland these will automatically become valid till I take it back'. Now he has asked his father to buy me the tickets for UK along with my 2 children. My question is, can I travel back to UK as his wife or does he have to say that he takes me back as his wife and I can come to UK via email or through any one else. I hope I made my question clear to you.