Q: If somebody told his wife "If you don't listen to me or will not listen to me then talaaq" two times in away when he said to her first time she couldn't hear him because she is deaf and didn't wear hearing aids but she did hear him when he repeat the words again. Just in case if she didn't hear him, will one or two talaaqs take place? My questions is how can she act upon the warning if she couldn't hear when he said it first time?
Q: If somebody says to his wife"If you don't listen to me then divorce 2 times" If she does listen to him after that, does the talaaq occur or not? If she does not listen to him then does 1 or 2 talaaqs take place?
Q: A father of the husband while separated from his wife wrote a divorce letter which the husband signed and gave it to a third party.Some time later the husband decided to destroy the letter. Later on the husband and wife reunited. The wife had no knowledge of the letter and was informed of the letter only after she was reunited with her husband. Many years have passed by. Where does this marriage stand according to Quraan and Sunnah?
Q: One evening my husband said to my 5 year old son that if we don't stop making noise your mum will shout at me so because of that I am divorcing her, I am divorcing her. He said it twice.
Q: If a man served one notice divorce in a month and again served second notice divorce in the second month and after that both want to start their matrimonial again life before 3 months expiring from serving the first notice. Should they perform a new nikaah or not?
Q: My son and his wife lived together abroad. She got a baby but unfortunately died before birth. On the advice of a doctor, she came back to Pakistan for her treatment. After sometime, my son sent an email through his computer, and wrote the divorce to his wife's email address. Divorce without any witnesses and signature. Both would like to reconcile and patch up now. I would like to know according to Islamic Shari'ah that has talaq has taken place through email or not?
Q: I married a hindu who became muslim in England because she was in love with me. As soon as she became Muslim she started having many arguments with me, and was angry with anything I did with my first wife and she even tried overdosing. After I did not agree with her behaviour, which included terrible sexual insults. It has been 1 month since my first wife went back to her family in India and is keen for me to take her back, which I would be prepared to. I did warn her that that we divorced - I want to know whether we are. If I was to meet her and we made love would that be permissible as there is uncertainty whether it is three divorces or two, whilst the other comments reiterated previous warnings.
Q: Is a talaak valid if given over any sort of social network? My husband said I (his name...) give you talaaq (my name...) 3 times and I want to know if it's valid as he sent it over WhatsApp?
Q: I have been staying separately from my husband for a year now. We have not initiated any divorce proceedings but we have had various issues which led to us living separately. We are both currently living with our parents. Amongst the issues we have had included family issues, trust issues, and Sunni and Deobandi clashes. I am a Sunni Barelvi Razvi mureed and my husband says that he is just a Muslim. However he is known to associate with friends and Ulema having Deobandi inclination. We have not had any physical form of contact in this year, I am not sure if we had to divorce whether I would be required to observe the normal Iddah period or not. Also, recently I have been feeling lustful and spoke to him about it, however I am not sure if I long to be physical with him or that I am just feeling lustful. I know its not wrong for me to have discussed these feelings with him as he is still my husband. Would it be wrong if we both met to satisfy our lustful desires, I think that since we are not divorced we are stil halaal for each other.
Q: On sunday my husband packed up my bags and came and dropped me off at my mother's house, he told me that he feels suffocated in the marriage. He came, left some of my stuff, went back to our home, loaded more stuff, came back, sat with my brother, I was shocked so I wasn't paying much attention to what they were saying but according to my brother, he said ''its over''. I asked him last night what did he mean by saying its over, to which he replied, nobody should come to conclusions and assume what I meant, if any Moulana wants to know why he brought me home, they should contact him and not come up with fatwa's that are not true. My question is, does this count as a talaaq and should my iddat have begun on sunday or is it not counted as talaaq. He did not use the words I divorce you.