Talaaq

Q: I have been staying separately from my husband for a year now. We have not initiated any divorce proceedings but we have had various issues which led to us living separately. We are both currently living with our parents. Amongst the issues we have had included family issues, trust issues, and Sunni and Deobandi clashes. I am a Sunni Barelvi Razvi mureed and my husband says that he is just a Muslim. However he is known to associate with friends and Ulema having Deobandi inclination. We have not had any physical form of contact in this year, I am not sure if we had to divorce whether I would be required to observe the normal Iddah period or not. Also, recently I have been feeling lustful and spoke to him about it, however I am not sure if I long to be physical with him or that I am just feeling lustful. I know its not wrong for me to have discussed these feelings with him as he is still my husband. Would it be wrong if we both met to satisfy our lustful desires, I think that since we are not divorced we are stil halaal for each other.

Q: On sunday my husband packed up my bags and came and dropped me off at my mother's house, he told me that he feels suffocated in the marriage. He came, left some of my stuff, went back to our home, loaded more stuff, came back, sat with my brother, I was shocked so I wasn't paying much attention to what they were saying but according to my brother, he said ''its over''. I asked him last night what did he mean by saying its over, to which he replied, nobody should come to conclusions and assume what I meant, if any Moulana wants to know why he brought me home, they should contact him and not come up with fatwa's that are not true. My question is, does this count as a talaaq and should my iddat have begun on sunday or is it not counted as talaaq. He did not use the words I divorce you.

Q: If a woman marries a man simply to use him by taking his money and then divorcing him, how would Allah judge this on the day of judgement?

Q: A few days ago during a fight between my husband and myself, my husband said in extreme temper or rage “OK bring your relative I will finish this relation”. I said “no one can do this only we can. Give me divorce. He only said “I give you”, but did not use the word talaaq or divorce. After this we apologized to each other. I said to my husband you have given me 1 divorce. He said it does not count in divorce because he showed me a hadith in ighlaaq or extreme temper divorce will not count.

Q: What if you give talaq but spell it incorrectly? Is it still based on intentions?

Q: I gave three talaqs. In order to get her back do I have to remarry and divorce or both of us? Is their any way to retract three talaqs?

Q: My husband has given me two talaaqs a long time ago (separately with a year gap). Is it right according to shari'ah that he can either force me or ask me get into a relation with him, as it is his right (as he say so)?

Q: I gave talaaq three times written no witness. My parents said if I don't give talaq then she would legally own half my house & kick me out. I was confused. Does divorce count? Do I have to wait iddah period to remarry her?

Q: I have not seen my estranged husband since 2011, it is now 2013 and he does not support us since 2011 when I had fallen pregnant. I ask for fasakh is it correct or should it be khula?

Q: I am from Karachi. When I was on duty my wife suddenly went back to her fathers house without my permission to hassan abdal dist attock and he forced me to give her divorce. When I refused, she went to court at hassan abdal and filed for a khula. She got khula from the court without giving back my 10 tola jewellery and she appeared in court and she took an oath that she has no jewellery. The judge gave her khula. Kindly tell me is the khula valid? She wants all her jahez saman back but she has all my jewellery and I have not signed any khula paper or given her any talaaq.