Meaning of the aayat "No bearer shall bear the burden of another"

Q: Could Mufti Saheb please explain to me the actual meaning that we take from the ayat which means: "No bearer shall bear the burden of another".

The reason I ask is because I heard an Aalim say that we think that our aamaal only affect us but it's not right because when Nabi e Kareem صلى الله عليه وسلم went for Mi'raaj than it was seen that all aamaal of the people was going up and conditions according to it go down upon the people. Meaning, because of our aamaal, people in Syria are under distress but wouldn't that contradict the Ayat.

From what I understand, is that the aamaal go up and according to one's own aamaal a person will get benefit or harm no matter what the condition. Is this the right understanding and if it is, should I in a way of extreme hikmat explain to the Aaalim who is my dear Ustaad?

Difference of opinion in Deen

Q: There is much confusion amongst people of knowledge regarding the term, 'difference of opinion'. Many students and scholars alike latch onto this term when it comes to social distancing in salaah and the closure of Masaajid. To clarify this dilemma, please provide us with guidance regarding the following:

1. Is social distancing in Salaah and Musjid closure a valid difference of opinion?

2. What are the limits of and what type of valid difference of opinions ought to be respected?

Purchasing a plot for development where the exact location of the plot is not demarcated

Q: Can a plot be purchased in a newly developing area where the exact physical location of the plot cannot be determined? They showed the plot on a map and the roads, other plots adjacent to the said plot, roads and park etc. in proximity to the said plot. They showed us that the area of the said plot and told us that your plot cannot be located now as the demarcation of the plots is not yet done. Is this sale and purchase valid?

Slaughtering an animal for a Jinn

Q: I was reading about those who slaughter an animal for the Jinn. I read that if the slaughtered animal is dedicated to a Jinn or Shaitaan, this will be an act of major Shirk (associating partners with Allah Ta'ala).

I have heard the scholars of Ahlus-Sunnah mention, “There is scholarly consensus that it is not permissible to prostrate to anyone or anything besides Allah Ta'ala. However, without the intention of worship, then this is not outright disbelief (kufr).”

My question is that in the first case, where they slaughter the animal for the Jinn, if someone who did this claimed that it was not shirk because it’s like the example mentioned about prostration, then how would you respond to them?