Ambiguous words of Talaaq

Q: I told my wife that you are free from my side. That time I was a bit angry, not much but little angry due to a fight that occured between us. I had no intention of divorce, but I heard that even if a person has no intention of divorce but is angry, then divorce will take place with kinaya words. Will that consitute talaaq immediately?

Q: A wife says to her husband that she wants to work because she is educated and suffers from depression thus wants to work and help her husband out financially. Also because the husband doesn't give her any money, instead he gives money to his parents.

The husband said "agar job karni hai or job karni hai to choro mujhe or job karni hai to chordena mujhe".

Meaning if you work or want to work then leave me.

The wife asked whether he had intention of divorce and he said "no", he just meant that she should stay with her father and then come back. If the wife worked would this be a divorce?

Q:

1. If during an argument my wife says "Mje tmre sath nh rehna" and in reutrn I say "mje b tmre sath nh rehna" with no intention of talaq and just as a respond to her question will that be a talaq.

2. If during an argument I say "mje tmre sath nh rehna" with no intention of talaq will that be a talaq.

Q: Me and my husband has had many arguments for the past 2 years. And everytime he keeps saying "Tum meri taraf se farigh ho" - "Tum meri taraf se poori farigh ho" and at the same time he also keep saying "I dont want anything to do with you. Leave this house and do what ever you want to do and go where ever you want to." Sometimes he says sorry and sometimes we dont talk for weeks.

1. Does that mean that he divorced me completely? Am I still in his Nikah or not?

We had arguments again today where he said "Tum meri taraf se farigh ho" and I said if you dont want to keep me then tell me clearly that you are divorcing me. But then he tells me to write down myself that I want a divorce from him. Even though its him who keeps saying it. I never wrote it down on a paper. I dont want to get divorced.

2. What does Talaaq e bain mean? Im a bit confused about what it is.

3. And what is "Revocable Talaaq"? And "Irrevocable Talaaq"? And what is the difference between them?

Q: My marriage is in 10th year. During the first two three years of my marriage, when me and my wife have a heated arguement, in the rage of anger, I asked her to go to her father's house, so that I can get some space to cool my anger. I used different kind of words as "I don't want to see your face", "Go away", "I will not show my face again" and many more words that I don't remember. I don't know how much time this happened, but it happened at least 10 times or more.

Now I came to know about Talaq with kinaya words, I am worried that if my marriage is valid or not. Your answer says that if those words are used in your area. I want to tell you that in my area, only the word "talaq" is used to give talaq.

Also I want to state that my intention was to find some lonely space when I uttered these words. But I doubt that in rage of anger, it is quite possible that I have feelings to get rid of my wife forever.

So, my question is that if a husband does not remembers that if has pronounced kinaya words, will be benefit of doubt will be given to the husband or not? Or, for the sake of "ahtiyat" and "taqwa", should I separate from my wife as I am fearing that if "zina" is taking place between us.

Q: Are the word s(leave) or (chor dena in urdu) kinaya words or sareeh words? I live in USA and we use these words in so many different meanings in both english and urdu.

For example, I have dropped off my brother at airport (in urdu, mein ne apne bhai ko airport per chor dia hai), he has quit smoking (Us ne cigrette peena chor dia hai), He has left the job (Us ne job chor di hai), I am leaving for work (Mein kaam per ja raha hoon), I have left my brother to my uncle's house for couple of hours, etc.

We use these words in general in our routine life. I have watched few videos on youtube, some of them say it is sareeh depending upon their urf like in Pakistan and some say it is kinaya. Some say that if a word has more than one meaning then the intention is required. We don't know what is the urf here in USA because here the Muslim community is from so many different Muslim countries around the world and they speak different languages. Can a person use these words for his wife if he has no intention of divorce. Please guide me about it. I asked this question from my family elders who are living here in USA for years, they say these kind of words require intention. It becomes so difficult sometimes to talk with my wife because of the choice of these words. Please guide me about it.

Q: I have just given birth 3 weeks ago and been staying with my parents. My husband and I got into an argument and in a state of extreme anger he said we were over. This was done over text message as well as verbally over the phone. He also sent a text message to my mum telling her also that me and him were over. The actual word of divorce was never spoken. Everyone is telling us we are now divorced. Is this correct?

Q: If one tells his wife we are done 2 times is the nikkah still valid? We were not discussing divorce and it was said because she was ignoring me. I said it more out of anger but i know she has a good heart.

She is a new muslim so she is still learning. However later on i found out it was because someone in her family was forcing her to do that in order to ruin our relationship. I have never said the words "I am divorcing you to her" and my intention has always been to help her understand deen. She motivated me to become a better muslim. When i got a nikkah i didn't have a beard. Now i have one and also am a student. Is our nikkah still valid?

Q: If I say "we are done" or "its over" does that count as talaaq? I got upset and said it.

Also, I stayed away from her and didn't see her unless she started to wear hijab, is that permissible?