Q:
1. If one is in half asleep and somehow realizes what he is doing but can not really think straight because he is half asleep and utters "talaaq" while the wife is somehow in the mind, does this count? The person could not really think about what he is doing or saying.
2. If someone mistakenly utters this word while just doing something and somehow thinking about the wife but there was no intention, but like a slip of the tongue, does this count?
Q: I am 22 years old - British citizen. I got married in Pakistan last year, but now seeking a divorce as the husband is horrible and abusuive towards me. I returned to England on December last year. I have no contact with husband whatsoever. I do not talk to him, I am now seeking divorce but he is refusing to give me one. I wanted to know that if I haven't had sexual contact with him for 8months is my marriage invalid? What if I Return my wedding gold to him does that make the marriage over? Or what if I say divorce 3times to him? As he lives in Pakistan what can I do? I've been struggling to find help.
Q: If my wife was saying to me she hates my attributes etc complaining about me over the phone and I assumed she was cheating on me and I reply "okay then I will divorce you " or something like "I'll divorce you " metaphorically with no intention of on the spot divorce more like a future reference in a mental state. This happened 4 years ago when she was pregnant and it was more like "okay if that is how you really feel about me then I will divorce you so tell me the truth" . I can't truly recall what I said and have thought long and hard but can you kindly tell me if it is counted as one talaaq. I truly believe it is not. I have tried long and hard to think back but can't recall what I exactly said. I was not angry nor were we arguing, it was a general conversation but I was intoxicated and going crazy like mental depression cause of the drugs. I was also under the Influence of drugs once again and the words divorce you divorce you came out with no apparent intention and as I was intoxicated, it came out with no such meaning. I tried to prevent this but it slipped out. I was really insane and did not know what I was saying. Are these counted as talaqs also? She also said once to me over the phone to say the word 'divorce' knowing that I would not because I love her. I did not respond to her talaaq but replied that I have already said the word long ago. I was confirming the 'divorce you' talaq which I have just mentioned but was definitely not initiating another one. Again I cannot recall my exact wordings but clearly remember my intention of confirming the talaaq which was said in the form of 'divorce you' 4 years ago.
Q: I recall my husband once saying that he will divorce me or he is going to divorce me. I don't think he meant it there in a instant but as thinking about it and said in anger. I think I forced him to say it and he was intoxicated. Is this counted? I asked him and he said he had no intention and meant maybe in the future but he couldn't recall how he said it but remembers his intention. He also once said divorce on its own a few times but not to me .. just screamed it randomly. Is this counted?
Q: A man told his wife "I don't want you as a wife." Does this count as one divorce?
Q: My question is about talaq. I have been a serious mental patient for last three years. Nowadays I am a little bit normal by some wazeefa and medicines. Three years ago I had too much waswasa and mental illness. There was too much pressure and mental error in my mind. 24 hours my mind was busy in unnecessary and unintentionally waswasa and mental thinking. What came in my mind, I would repeat it many times because of waswasa and mental illness. When I looked at something like name of someone then I looked at for long time because of too much waswasa. When I touched something then I touched it many times because of waswasa and mental pressure. I had also this problem while ablution and I washed one organ many times because of waswasa.I had also this problem in reciting Holy Quran and in my study. I read one word many times and looked at for a long time. What came in my mind, I would not be relaxed until I repeated it verbally many times. I was always talking to myself. My mental disease was too much serious and unintentionally that I could not stop and control it and if I did not do some wazeefa and medicines, I would loss my sense. Two years ago for the reason of leaving waswasa and mental thinking because I could not stop it I said with myself these words. ( "If I have waswasa and mental thinking INTENTIONALLY, my wife will be divorced on me" ) After that I did not think INTENTIONALLY but I could not stop it and waswasa came to my mind UNINTENTIONALLY because It was a serious problem and I had too much mental pressure that automatically waswasa and mental thinking was coming to my mind UNINTENTIONALLY. Now I have too much doubt that Talaq is valid for not valid?
Q: Sometimes in newspapers and on news on TV we find talaaq, talaaq, talaaq written. If a husband reads these words aloud just for the sake of reading it, does it apply divorce in his married life?
Q: I was married on 2013 October. Shortly afterwards, I developed an ulcer which my in-laws took to be cancer. Even while I was in hospital, they started to threaten me and asked for divorce. They threatened to implicate me in a dowry case, make everyone go to jail and get all our property to be sold. After a lot of requests, they met my surgeon who had done that surgery. When they found out after meeting him that I honestly did not have cancer and I was telling the truth, they agreed to continue the marriage relationship depending on some conditions. They gave us 15 days time. An agreement had been reached between us. We were ready to meet every condition. But two days later, they called me to say that they will terminate the relationship as they had found another groom, who happened to be my wife’s ex-boyfriend. After that, they came and intimidated me when I was alone in the house. Everyone in my family had gone to the hospital as my brother-in-law was sick. They surrounded me on all sides and threatened me and frightened me into signing on a piece of paper. While I did sign on the paper, I did not say anything aloud. I was seriously ill and in bed-rest. I was alone in the house while they had several goons. As a result, I could not fight and had to sign out of fright. I would have been implicated in a dowry case if I hadn’t signed and would have been humiliated. I would have been physically harmed. I was being threatened with the Dowry Case, selling of the house and physical harm. That is why I signed on that paper. (1) Am I divorced now as I have signed on that piece of paper? (2) I had not enunciated any word orally. I only signed on that paper on which “Triple Talaq” was written in order to save myself. (3) My intention was not to go for divorce. Please give me answer in Quran and Saheeh hadith. Kya maira talaq hu ya nahi?
Q: I have been separated for over 5 years. Is my nikaah still valid?
Q: I have a question about an event that took part almost two months ago but the question came in my mind this week. About two months ago, my wife and I got in a very heated argument and I got extremely mad. Due to my anger, I wanted to emotionally upset her so I told her that I am thinking of divorce (honestly speaking, the thought or idea of divorce did come up, but I didn't want to do it - I only mentioned it to her so I could emotionally upset her). So, she started crying. Then, I told her that if I write it on my arm, then it will take place. Then, I wrote "Thinking of divorce" on my right arm and since she was crying (and couldn't see), I told her, "Well, I wrote it..." (I did write the word divorce, but the complete phrase was 'Thinking of Divorce' and she couldn't see the full phrase. The only reason I did this was, again, to emotionally upset her). Then, after maybe two minutes, she read the phrase and said "What does this mean?" I told her that I only wrote "Thinking of divorce" so I could threaten her and upset her. Then, after about a few hours when we calmed down, we both apologised and we both moved on. However, the question came to my mind did this actually count as a divorce at all or not? I asked my wife and she thinks that maybe this counted as the first divorce that was revoked. I, on the other hand, due to my intention to not divorce her at all, do not think this was actually a divorce. Moreover, she was near her menses and we had relations before that, so I knew I would have to wait until after her menses to actually divorce her (but again, I never intended on doing that). So does this count as a divorce?