Those situations where Talaaq does not take place

Talaaq question

Q: I would like to enquire about an argument that occurred between my spouse and myself in 2003. During that time I uttered the word Tala Tala Tila. Since then my wife and I lived together as normal lives until Jan 2013. Recently my wife had a small problem and now stated about that incident whereby I had said those words. I confronted her parents in 2003 about the matter and explained the situation that it was not intentional. My wife is insisting that she heard the words back then. Also to note that we got a baby girl in 2007 who is currently 7 years of age. This has since become a problem and we require clarity as to if the marriage is over? I await your feedback.

Does the following construe a divorce

Q: In an argument with my wife she said she wants a divorce. Later that day I sent these text messages. If you want to leave me speak to your dad, you know what to do. If you want to leave me, go and get  khula, go to the shariah council. I had no intention of divorce. In a later message I also said I have no intention of leaving you. Has divorce taken place.

Talaaq of a person who is not in his senses

Q: I have a question about divorce. My husband is a high blood pressure patient and nowadays he is suffering from facial paralysis and a heart problem as well. So when his BP shoots, he is not even in his senses. He pronounced divorce four times in that stream anger and high BP and when he found me weeping then he realised that he was out of senses and pronounced that word. I am very upset please guide me.

Husband telling the wife "we should separate"

Q: Could you please give clarity on the issue of talaaq. If I have said to my wife that we should separate and subsequent to that we are both in agreement that our marriage is over. Will this be considered a talaq? Secondly, if i have uttered the words, I hereby give you a talaq and she records it on her cellphone, when nobody else is around, will that stand as a valid talaq? Lastly, if I have said the words and the same night my wife states that she has started spotting (starting menstruating), does it make the talaq invalid or is it simply a case of the Iddah period being moved till after spotting ends?