Q: As part of some light-heartedness my brother had the following conversation with his wife:
Him: Who do you like more? Me or your mum
Her: My Mum
They then both laughed
Him: So then go back to your mum
He says his intention was not divorce. His intention was 'go back to to your mum for love.' The statement was made in jest/as a joke.
Would this constitute divorce?
Q: Does the marriage nullify if the spouse says to someone, he/she is not married?
Q: If one says I divorce my wife when I get married to her. Will they get divorced? If this is said in ones mind or where no human heard it, will it take effect?
Q: My wife habitually tells me you must be doing something wrong, when I follow instructions and they do not work. Today I lost my temper and said to her as follows:
The intention of divorce was in my mind at the time as I was so angry. Would this constitute divorce? At this moment in time, whilst typing this, I am still so angry that I am thinking I don't care if it constitutes divorce. I want it to constitute divorce. I may have made other statements alluding to divorce but can't recall what they are. They would have been similar to the aforementioned statements. Should I find out from my wife what I said?
Q: If a man has an intention of divorcing his wife but does not say anything aloud (he said talaaq in his mind), is the nikkah still valid?
Q: I have a Brother-in law who is Bi-polar (Mental sickness), He had a re-lapse, whereby he became sick again about a week ago. He is married & has one child. However when he had the re-lapse he pronounced 3 talaaqs to his wife, thereafter he was hospitalised for a week & is now back at home. Is his pronunciation of the 3 talaaqs valid?
Q: Does tearing marriage photos count as a divorce? For example, if a husband tears up a marriage photo after a dispute with his wife in the past but does not remember why the photo was ripped in the first place, does this lead to anything?
Q: I know a woman who have married with a man who already married two women and he didn't tell the truth, after some time this man beat his wife and treated her badly, at last he decided to kill her. When this woman sensed it she left her husband with out telling him to germany. After 3 years this woman married another boy but her ex-husband didn't give divorce and the wife also didn't take khula. During the 3 years the ex-husband didn't give nafaqah and didn't even search for her. Now is the second nikaah valid for this woman.
Note: The ex-husband by his wish did an operation not to have children and her ex-husband was not ready to talk and was just by name Muslim. This women told him so many times to leave her and she doesn't want anything from him but the husband said that I will take you to my brothers home and will leave you there for ever.
Q: I was like kind of attracted to my sister in law. About a year back my wife and I where having an argument. She was telling me that she does not like me talking to her sister and that I'm always talking to her sister etc. I always like had the thought that the rule regarding where a man touches his mother inlaw with lust nikah breaks may also apply to the sister in law also. I also had doubts as to weather rule may apply to the sister in law. I was not completely sure. Anyway, during that argument I told my wife "you know if I even touch her (my wifes sister) nikah breaks" with no intention of any talaq at all. I wasn't suspending or issuing a talaq I wasn't even thinking about talaq. I just told her that for it to seem as though that is the islamic ruling. I just guessed/made up/ lied for it to seem that that is the islamic ruling and for her not to worry and to give assurance. I had absolutely no intention of any talaq, the only intention I may have had was not to touch my sister in law because its a sin. After couple of months I touched my sister in law with lust then after a few months I may have touched her with lust again. Some muftis told me that no talaq takes place because I had no intention. Another told me that no talaq takes place because that's a completely wrong statement and the statement won't take effect coz that's not the masla etc. Another told me it like falls under explaining a masla. My question is (1) is there any suspended talaq in this situation? If yes how many talaqs take place? Am I safe and do I have anything to worry about?
Q: I have a serious problem with waswasa about talaq. this has turned into a mental problem like obsesive compulsive disorder where these thoughts keep playing in my mind and sometimes I think I say it on my own in my mind. I have no control over it. Numerous muftis have told me that talaq has to be verbal for it to be valid. After getting fatwas from muftis then I get these thoughts that maybe the mufti did not understand or did not hear the question correctly etc and I go into a state of depression. This is really affecting me. Whether I'm doing good or bad I get these thoughts. I am in constant fear of talaq. Its like almost always playing in my head. My question is (1) as I said this has become a mental problem and because of this I sometimes say things in my MIND ONLY which may not be waswasa but because of this mental problem that I have developed like egs: if I'm on the internet I say in my mind "if I click on a certain link its talaq". Then I just ignore what I said in my mind and click on the link and carry on with whatever I'm doing. Does any talaq take place like this? I was told by other muftis that no talaq takes place. Please advice. This waswasa is really affecting me. I love my wife a lot. May Allah bless our marriage ameen.