Q: Please verify these two Hadith:
1. I'm Arab but Arab is not in me and I'm not Hind but Hind is in me.
2. I feel a cool breeze coming from Hind.
Did Nabi (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) really say that? If yes then please tell me the tafseer but not in Arabic.
Q:
1. My question is regarding the rule in Islam that commands Muslims to choose their caliph (khalifah) from among the tribe of Quraysh. The question here rises that how can Islam limit leadership to Quraysh and create a concept of Qurayshi , Non-Qurayshi.
2. Secondly I have read on another website that Arab Muslims who's piety is superior to non Arab Muslims piety in “general terms” as they are better in linage and descent. This again is a very irrational mentality. Clarify the following.
Q: I recently had an argument with my friend. I read an article about Prince Muhammad bin Salman calling Trump the Muslims best friend. I told my friend that I think he's such a sellout. My friend responded by saying that it was improper for me to say so as Nabi (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) said it that was not permissible to say anything bad about an Arab and it was impermissible to hate them.
Q: I was wondering, was the description of the houris in the quran addressing the early arabs. I found this claim: Hence it is proved that the concept of “Maidens of Paradise” was also known in the pre-Islamic Arabia, especially among the Christians. The Qur’an, as is its style under normal circumstances, used the same words for the deliverance of its message, which were generally in vogue in the environment that it addressed. Since the idea of the Hereafter formed the cornerstone of the early Meccan preaching of the Qur’an therefore, to effectively make it preaching get across its addressees, it employed the same known word “hur” to describe the excellence of the reward for the righteous in the known Christian manner. This is further confirmed by the fact that it is only in the Meccan (and especially the chronologically early Meccan) Qur’anic passages in which the term “hur al-ayn” is used in sensual connotation. In the relevant Medinan Qur’anic passagesi.e., 2:25; 3:15; 4:57, we only find perfected counterparts/spouses (i.e., for both the righteous men and women). According to ulema, where quran verses using houris only addressing the early arabs?
Q: I have a lot of proposals for my daughter but they are not good. They dont pray and haram income. One good proposal came, he prays and is always attending the masjid and halaal income Masha Allah, but her father refused him because he is not from Yemen, he is from Libya and half Egyptian. Can I marry my daughter by force with out my husband's consent in this situation because he would rather give her to a zany as long as he is from Yemen then a practicing Muslim from a different country. What can I do in this situation.