Q: Why are the descendants of only Hazrat Hasan and Hazrat Husain (Radhiyallahu Anhuma) considered to be the extended bloodline of Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) considering Hazrat Fatima had other children too. Adding further, Hazrat Umama also had a child. Is it an exceptional case?
Q: In the books of ahadeeth, there are numerous instance like Hadeeth e Kisa or the incident of Mubahala where there is only the presence of Hazrat Fatima recorded. Whereas Prophet Muhammad (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) had 3 more daughters, and during these two incidences at least 2 daughters apart from Hazrat Fatima were alive. Apart from these two incidences, there are many hadeeths in which the position of Hazrat Fatima is extolled and there is hardly any reference of Ruqayyah bint Muhammad, Umm Kulthum bint Muhammad, Zainab bint Muhammad. They also don't feature among the Ahle Bayt, wherever that reference is found in the books of hadeeth.
Q: Please can you inform me: What is the reason why Hadhrat Umar رضي الله عنه's Quniyyah is Abu Hafs.
Q: Without marriage, how did Nabi (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) have a child with Maariya qibtiyyah (Radiyallahu Anha)?
Q: Hazrat Muhammad (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) participated in the pact before declaration of Prophethood: a. Pact of Marina B. Halful Fuzool C. Pact of Hudaibiyyah D. Pact of Brotherhood.
Q: This question is on behalf of my Hindu friend. He says that Muhammad (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) killed two women Asma binti Marwan and Umm Qirfa. Can you please let me know of the reference of hadith and its reason.
Q: Since the places of azaab is not recommended to spend much time there e.g. Dead sea in Jerusalem, can one visit Petra? Is it ok to spend a night there or better to see and leave a.s.a.p. Please advise.
Q: How did Nabi (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) manage 11 wives? Is it true that he had given talaaq one by one before marrying the other one? Is there authentic hadith in this regard?
Q: My question is pertaining to Ibnu taymiyyah. He is someone that deemed the Mongol invaders of the Muslim world to be non Muslim as they didn't rule according to the Law of Allah, he didn't say the same though about his own rulers even though they were not exactly entirely applying sharia and he was loyal to them and never instructed jihad against them. Did he do so on the grounds he thought it is wrong to fight the ruler or did he not deem his rulers as non Muslim in the same way he did the Mongols and if so why didn't he deem his own Mamluk rulers also non Muslim for not ruling by the Law of Allah?
Q: I have heard that in your kitaab on the topic of Karbala and Yazeed, the respected author quotes from the book al-Bidaayah wan-Nihaayah. Such narrations are quoted which ibn-Katheer Rahmatullahi alaihi at the end of the discussion himself says that these narrations are fabricated. Is this true? I sincerely hope that Mufti Saheb will clarify this matter for me and many others who have heard this.