Commentary

Q: Regarding these two hadiths:

1. “He who has a morning meal of seven ‘ajwa dates will not suffer harm that day through toxins or magic.” (Bukhari, Hadith 5327 and Muslim, Hadith 3814)

2. ‘Aisha reported Allah’s Messenger as saying, “The ‘ajwah dates of al-‘Aliya contain healing, and they are an antidote (when taken as) first thing in the morning.” (Muslim, Hadith 3815)

You said that it has to be taken first thing on an empty stomach in the morning, when does morning end Islamically? My question is if I had a late night dinner near fajr time a few hour before fajr time, if my stomach is still full at fajr time then is it still okay to eat the dates provided thats the first thing eaten during fajr time? Also the hadith from Bukhari says in general that the ajwa dates should be eaten at morning time, it doesn't specify it to be taken as the first thing, so does it have to be the first thing taken or as long as it's taken (before or after eating in the morning) it's okay?

Q:

1. It is reported in the Hadith that, “He who has a morning meal of seven ajwa dates will not suffer harm that day through poison or magic.” (Bukhari, Hadith 5327 and Muslim, Hadith 3814)

2. Hazrat ‘Aisha (Radiyallahu Anha) reported Allah’s Messenger (Sallallahu Alaihi Wasallam) as saying, “The ajwa dates of al-‘Aliya contain healing, and they are an antidote (when taken) first thing in the morning.” (Muslim, Hadith 3815)

I have a question regarding the two Ahaadith above. Do ajwa dates have to be taken at fajr time which is morning time Islamically, because these Ahaadith clearly say that it should be taken in the morning, or is any time during the day okay, provided it's the first thing eaten? If it has to be taken first thing at fajr time, does your stomach need to be empty? The reason for me asking is that I usually eat a heavy dinner at late night and my stomach is still full at fajr time. Also, what are Aliya ajwa dates and do you know where Aliya Ajwa dates are sold? 

Q: The Messenger of Allah (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) said: “Whoever says at the end of every Fajr prayer, while his feet are still folded, before speaking: ‘None has the right to be worshipped but Allah, Alone without partner, to Him belongs all that exists, and to Him is the praise, He gives life and causes death, and He is powerful over all things, (لا إله إلا الله وحده لا شريك له له الملك وله الحمد يحيي ويميت وهو على كل شئ قدير)’ ten times, then ten good deeds shall be wiped away from him, ten degrees shall be raised up for him, and he shall be in security all that day from every disliked thing, and he shall be in protection from Shaitan, and no sin will meet him or destroy him that day, except for associating partners with Allah.”

For this hadith, does this mean that it is impossible for a person to commit a sin on that day and does this include all major and minor sins? And is this Hadith graded authentic by everyone?

Q: When the iqaamah has been said, then there is no prayer is valid except fard prayer for which the iqamath was said. Please explain this Hadith.

Q: It says in the Ahadeeth that hasad and bugdh shave off the deen. What have the ulama written under the commentary of shaving off the deen?

Q:

1. If someone uses Aa’ishah (Radhiallahu Anha's) looking at the Abyssinians as a proof of permissibility for watching such sport which has no Haram i.e music uncovering of satr women etc is this correct?

2. Therefore can one class this act as A) a waste of time B) lahw C) la yanee 3. If so then why?

Q: I read the following hadith from Abu Dawud: "A’ishah (Radiyallahu Anha) said “In what was sent down in the Qu’ran ten suckling’s made marriage unlawful, but they were abrogated by five known ones and when the Prophet (ﷺ) passed away, these words were among what was recited in the Qur’an.” If somebody agrees with Aisha's (Radiyallahu Anha's) opinion today and claims that the part about five sucklings should really be part of the Quran, will such a person become a kafir? Or is it a valid difference of opinion since a great sahabiah such as Aisha (Radiyallahu Anha) held this opinion?

Q: I do not understand a hadeeth which appears in Abu Dawood. It reads as follows:

من نصر قومه على غير الحق فهو كالبعير الذي ردي فهو ينزع بذنبه

1. Please explain the meaning of the hadeeth.
2. What is the meaning of ''helping his people unjustly''. Could you give an example.

Q: Is it true if a woman asks her husband to divorce her with no valid reason than she has shook the arsh of Allah or what is the sin for this?

Q: I just want to know about Dajjal. Some people narrate hadeeths about him being a son of Adam and will be born to a couple who would be barren for 30 years while others narrate a story about him being chained on an island. What should we be believing? What's correct and what's not? Please do enlighten me.