talaaq

Q: Please assist me. I have been married for 9 years now but my husband left me for 2 years since June 2015 and has now decided to come back to me.

We were married for a couple of months when we had a huge argument and he issued me with two Talaaq notifications. To tell the truth I did'nt hear the Talaaq notification but my mom did. She was shocked and she then told me that he issued me with two Talaaq notifications. We continued to stay together like a normal married couple until May 2015 when I requested him to leave cause he was not working and he did not want to find a job and contribute to our living expenses. He has now advised me that he has a bakery that he is managing and he would like us to reconcile.

Please Mufti will you advise me on what needs to be done from an Islamic point of view. What is required from me. Do I need to observe Idatt cause I didn't think it was necessary as we stayed together even after he mentioned Talaaq twice. Your advise will be highly appreciated

Q: If a married couple is not happy, will the one who breaks the marriage get the sin?

Q: I have question about divorce in Islam.

Is it haram in Islam if a husband divorces his wife because they live in different country and he can't bring the wife due to visa reason? My husband studies in Australia, and we have problem about bringing me to Australia. We have been living separately for 1,5 year. He said to me that he will divorce me if my Australian visa get rejected. He prefers divorce to visiting me if I can't get the visa this year. I want to know if this reason can be used to divorce a wife according to Islam?

Q: My sister got divorce from her husband few days back, but she is 7 month pregnant. So kindly give fatwah if pregnant women can be divorced or not. She and her husband have not touched each other since last 5 months.

Q: My husband divorced me and then we had sexual relations a month later. Are we still divorced or does that mean the marriage is back on.

Q: In the past I had some disputes with my wife. Alhamdulillah things are better now. However, sometimes I have waswasa if divorce may be occurred.

I have several questions but biggest one I will ask now others maybe later. One such instance is as follows that I would like to ask. We had been separated for several months. There was a meeting with some elders about our marriage and it was decided to give us 1 month more to sort things out to get back together. At the end of this meeting, I said something to one of the elders like "okay so we have 1 month to work things out, if things work out she will be back within 1 month and if not then..." and I basically stopped and there was non-verbal expressions. I did not mention "divorce" in that sentence and neither do I believe that was my intention. However, I did sort of in a way imply divorce and afterwards I mentioned to others as well that "we have a 1 month time limit to work things out".

We got back together but a couple of weeks past 1 month. After 1 month passed, I started getting waswasa that maybe I had stated a conditional divorce which I did not realize earlier.

I do believe although I was implying that things will not work out if it goes past one month, I did not intend it to be a conditional divorce upon one month but rather that a decision of divorce would have to be made (so basically I was saying something like so we have 1 month to make a decision).

I don't believe my understanding was that divorce would take place automatically after 1 month, but rather that a decision would have to be made. After 1 month but before we got back together, as part of a conversation I also said something to my wife like "We had 1 month time limit, if things worked out you would be back if not we would be ending it" or something similar like "if not things would be over".

I just want to know if this was conditional divorce. Again I did not use the word of divorce and I don't believe it was my intention.