Q: My husband gave me 1 written talaaq 8 years ago but we consummated before the iddat period. Then today he gave me 2 written talaaqs. Does it mean three talaaqs or still two. What is the procedure now. I am confused. I love him but he doesn't seem to care.
Q: My husband gave me one talaaq via SMS in December while we were separated. We reconciled after a month. Then on Thursday night he gave me two talaaqs via whatsapp while we were sitting in the same house and while being intoxicated on dagga. We are currently separated. Are these talaaqs valid? Is my marriage over?
Q: Can a person divorce his wife via an sms or text message, or does he have to phone her and give her the divorce by speaking over the phone?
Q: I am married for five years and we have a 3 year old son. Alhamdulillah we used to live in Saudi Arabia but because of our financial status I came to India since 1 year and he comes on vacations. He loves me a lot and I also loves him. We both take care of each other very well and we both are very loyal to each other in everything. But my husband is a very aggressive person. In aggression he will loose control of himself. He says whatever he tells its right, if sometimes I try to correct him at that time he starts to fight. But I control myself and avoid arguments. Once over a silly argument he told me talaaq through a message but next day he apologised for it. As he said it in anger with out any intention of it, I also forgave him at that time only. But again second time after few months without any real reason in anger and tension on a argument he told me talaaq lelo aur jaao ' through a message. I am very confused with this kind of behaviour. I don't understand what to do. I am sure that he will call and talk with me by tomorrow. Insha Allah. Even he will be sorry for it. But I don't have any Islamic knowledge about this. Is it considered as a real talaaq or as it was unintentional so we can ignore it? Is there any kaffara for it. Please let me know and help me regarding this matter.
Q: I got married three months ago to a boy few days after nikaah. He went back home as his parents didn't know he was married and he told me he will be back before the school opens. Ever since then we started fighting. I landed up in ICU two weeks after our nikaah. I was then sedated for 2 weeks after wards whereas my mind set was altered and a lot of things wasn't remembered and I remained in hospital for six weeks until discharge. Few days after I landed in ICU I was apparently fighting with my husband via sms, most of which I cannot recall, as my mindset was altered and apparently talaaq was given and I don't know in what manner or how it was said, or written, because my mindset was altered I was sedated everything was blurred as I was having status epilepticus so they kept me on rivatrol sedated and I was merely opening my eyes few times a day for few minutes in 4 weeks. I refute his talaaqs completely and don't accept it. He cannot prove these talaaqs as he doesn't have these messages to show me.
Q: In May 2014 I was issued with my first divorce (but my husband wrote I DIV you). I was not present in the same room when he wrote it. Then around the end of May he issued the 2nd one same thing he wrote I DIV you, I was in his presence when he wrote it. Then end of July 2 days after eid he issued the last 1 also I DIV you. I was not present when he wrote it. I then started to sit my Iddat, we did have intercourse twice during my iddat period, but never got back together. I want to know now am I divorced was all 3 valid?
Q: A woman had sent a khula letter on a 100 rupees stamp paper written by a moulana to her husband witnessed by her sister and brother stating that she needs khula, upon receiving the husband signed the document writing that he is giving divorce and willing to release her with out taking any Mahr amount or what so ever. Will this end the marriage or the husband should pronounce talaaq in front of witnesses to end the marriage. Just upon receiving the written consent papers can the woman marry another person.
Q: Me and my husband are currently in the middle of a divorce. It is not something I want but their are family complications on his side which means sadly he is taking this route. The way he is giving me a divorce is though written paper which is signed by two witnesses. He will only issue this once to me. My question is I always thought that a divorce needs to be issued three times over a three months period is the way he is divorcing me valid? Also once I receive the paper of divorce my iddah period will begin after this period is over does the rule apply that we can not reconcile and are unable to marry each other again unless I have a another marriage which is genuine and genuinely does not work out (I would not do anything like this on purpose as I know it is haram). Or could we re marry because the divorce has only been issued once?
Q: Two days ago I went to a lawyer and told him the details of dispute between me and my wife. After listening, he advised me to make a divorce deed. I agreed and thought that this divorce deed will not be in effective unless I pronounced it verbally or orally in front of my wife. After signing the divorce deed, the lawyer told me to verbally / orally say talak to my wife as a proof but I did not said any thing except I said "just leave it, it is OK". Then he told me to arrange two witness to mentioned in the divorce deed. I went to my two friends and asked them to sign but even here in front of my witnesses I did not said I talak my wife. I got back to my lawyer with the signed document and after examining he said to me that now your wife is haram on you. I was shocked how it could be possible when I have not said talak in front of my wife or anyone else. I was puzzled and the lawyer told me to send the divorce deed to your wife's house. I posted the divorce deed but I did not want to send this divorce deed to my wife. I had thought and my intentions were to just warned my wife by sending the divorce deed and not really divorce her. No doubt I was angry with her
attitude but my intentions were not to take the matters so far. I thought this way she will get back to me and I will tear the divorce deed later. Now please tell me is talak/divorce has been implemented according to law and sharia? Is my wife haram on me?
Q: I was made to marry as soon as I turned 18 and even though I refused my family still went ahead with it. I tried my level best to make something I never wanted to work but instead gained nothing but abuse from the person I married. I received a text from him saying he is divorcing me. When asked about this he said he was joking and never really meant it however I am now wanting a divorce. My family are not agreeing to it yet I wish to go ahead and get one. As I am not registered married in the UK I don't have the legal side of paper work for the divorce to worry about. Will you just let me know how to go about my divorce the Islamic way and if there is any paper work or form for divorce in Islam?