Tafseer

Basing the Quraan Majeed on scientific theories

Q: 1:  Geocentrism [Quran 36:38-40] - And the sun runs [on course| toward its stopping point. That is the determination of the Exalted in Might, the Knowing. And the moon - We have determined for it phases, until it returns [appearing] like the old date stalk. It is not allowable [i.e., possible] for the sun to reach the moon, nor does the night overtake the day, but each, in an orbit, is swimming

The Quran describes the universe as the geocentric model, where the earth is the center of the universe and everything is orbiting us. In reality, this is not true and everyone at this time back then believed in this model. The sun actually doesn't orbit us, we orbit it instead. It just looks like the sun is moving but actually the earth is just spinning. Muslims "refute" this by pointing out that the sun orbits the milky way, which is true but if the Quran was actually talking about the sun orbiting the milky way, how would that even be relevant to us at that time rather than the common belief of geocentrism? That 230 million year orbit around the milky way has absolutely nothing to do with humanity whatsoever. Besides, the entire solar system and everything within the gravitational region of the black hole in the center of the milky way orbits it, not just us.

Why would the Quran only refer to the sun if it was talking about the gravitational regions of the black hole? Why would the Quran not speak about the very common 7th century belief rather than something absolutely no one knew about?  

It is not allowable [i.e., possible| for the sun to reach the moon, nor does the night overtake the day, but each, in an orbit, is swimming.

In this verse, the issue is that the movements of the sun and moon are described similarly, whereas our model of the universe has the sun and moon's movements as completely different. Why does the Quran discuss the orbit of the sun in the same verse that explains the phenomenon of day and night, if it is not referring to geocentrism?

[Sahih al-Bukhari 3199] - The Prophet (sallallahu alaihi wasallam) asked me at sunset, "Do you know where the sun goes (at the time of sunset?" I replied, "Allah and His Apostle know better." He said, "It goes (i.e. travels) till it prostrates Itself underneath the Throne and takes the permission to rise again, and it is permitted and then (a time will come when) it will be about to prostrate itself but its prostration will not be accepted, and it will ask permission to go on its course but it will not be permitted, but it will be ordered to return whence it has come and so it will rise.

Muslims often respond to this hadith desperately trying to reinterpret it. The usual Muslim response is "well what does 'prostrating' mean or what does 'goes'mean?" ..Well if these aren't signifying orbit, then what does "underneath the throne mean"? I think we can all agree that this hadith says the sun at some point is underneath the throne of Allah. And as we know, the throne of Allah is above the waters which are above the seventh heaven of the flat earth. The only way for the sun to be underneath the throne of Allah is for it to be above the earth, which would fit the geocentric world view. Scientifically speaking, the sun is not above the earth and it never will be. This hadith is geocentric, there's no escaping it. [Sahih al-Bukhari 3124]

Please answer everything here.

Meaning of seven ahruf

Q: Were all 7 Ahruf (without exception) and all The Mutawaatir & Mashhur Qira’aat (without exception) revealed by Allah Ta'ala to Jibril (alaihis salaam) who delivered the Revelation to Sayyidunaa Muhammad (sallallahu alaihi wasallam) and Allah Ta'ala revealed it to Sayyidunaa Muhammad (sallallahu alaihi wasallam) and Jibril (alaihis salaam)?

Meaning of the aayat "No bearer shall bear the burden of another"

Q: Could Mufti Saheb please explain to me the actual meaning that we take from the ayat which means: "No bearer shall bear the burden of another".

The reason I ask is because I heard an Aalim say that we think that our aamaal only affect us but it's not right because when Nabi e Kareem صلى الله عليه وسلم went for Mi'raaj than it was seen that all aamaal of the people was going up and conditions according to it go down upon the people. Meaning, because of our aamaal, people in Syria are under distress but wouldn't that contradict the Ayat.

From what I understand, is that the aamaal go up and according to one's own aamaal a person will get benefit or harm no matter what the condition. Is this the right understanding and if it is, should I in a way of extreme hikmat explain to the Aaalim who is my dear Ustaad?

Fighting oppression

Q: Could you please explain the Tafseer of Ayah 9 of Surah Al-Hujurat when Sayyiduna Ali (radhiyallahu anhu) was fighting in the battle of Siffin. Could you elaborate on that. Can you explain the word فَقَـٰتِلُوا۟ If the side of the oppressors does not stop, are they killed?

Meaning of the verse that Allah Ta'ala alone has complete knowledge of five things

Q: It is mentioned in the Quraan that there are five things which only Allah Ta'ala knows. The first is regarding when Qiyaamah will occur, the second is regarding when rain will fall, the third is regarding what is in a woman's womb, the fourth is regarding what a person will earn, and the last is regarding a person's time of death.

Nowadays, we can say when rain will fall by referring to weather forecasts. We can say whether a boy or girl is in the mother's womb by ultrasound. So when we have information regarding these things, then what does it mean when the Quraan says that only Allah Ta'ala has knowledge of these things?