talaaq

Q:

1) When I said things like "if until then this doesn't change, I go and leave you" , really intending to leave then and divorce, and no change took place until that time limit, does a kinaya divorce take place or a sarih? This happened many times. I didn't know that ruling back than.

2) I really left her some weeks ago with a real intended kinaya divorce upon which she asked " are you serious? And I said "yes". The following days I talked to some persons and said things like "I left her, I divorced her, my ex-wife, I dont want her back..." ....while I had thoughts like "you divorced again by that....its over anyway", but didn't care because I really was thinking it's completely over anyway. So I learned in the hanafi school that if you follow a kinaya with a clear sarih then both come into effect. But the contract broke somehow with the kinaya divorce before anyway. So how to understand this? Is following a kinaya with sarih meant that it happens in the same sentence or sitting? Is this all relevant anyway if in question 1) contract broke before.

3) If you say unintentionally words to yourself that pop in mind like "triple talaq", is that a Problem? Like a song comes to your head and you unintentionally utter the words.

4) If in the aqd it was agreed that wife can any time make use of divorcing right "khula"......does that come in effect if wife for example said like:" if until then this doesnt change we separate " and both agree but no mention of khula ? We wish to reconcile with a new aqd. Is this after these scenarios still possible?

Q: I'm in a complicated situation and have been asking scholars for some guidance through my confusion. I was married three years ago in Pakistan, my husband sent me divorce papers while I was visiting my mother in New York because it turns out he was just looking for the green card. However, by USA law he cannot legally divorce me until he has resided in one state for a year. He has to wait another 6 months to file for divorce. My question is, am I Islamically divorced because he sent papers? I just want to be super sure because my mother wants to look for a rishta but I don't want her speaking to another man on my behalf if I am still married. Also there is the question of idaat, have I completed my waiting period because we have not lived together since July 2015 or do I need to wait 3 months after the divorce has been finalized legally through NY state law?

Q: I like to ask a question about divorce that if a person doesn't know the proper rules of divorce. So in an extremely angry status he says but can't remember how many times, wife also didn't remember and when he calm down he said I didn't have intention to give you divorce at all. He did this already two times in different occasions each time he said he doesn't have any intention to give divorce or leave his wife at all because he loves her. His sister also have anger issues and she is on medication but he is alright but sometimes he becomes extremely angry and start saying things which in normal condition he doesn't want to say. Please explain me what the Shariah says about it?

Q: In reference to the context of ending the marriage, my husband said to me these words, "I am ending it now. I will send you legal papers each month (3 months), give you dower money and Rs. 10000 each month for my son. Only thing between you and me is our son if you allow. You have your life independent in every way. Send me your address, if you will not send me address then I will get it my self". Now he says that I said these words and said I will send you divorce but I did not act upon accordingly. Can you please guide me whether these words count towards my divorce by my husband or not. I am much confused as the words show his intention to send me divorce.

Q: I write to you dear Mufti Saheb on behalf of a close family relative. The situation is regarding Talaaq. Some time ago he whilst having a discussion with his wife mentioned to her: "when you were my wife" I do not know in what context either jokingly or what but he does not recall the context but did not intend divorce, he has told her straight after this incident that if divorce had fallen he revokes it. Secondly, recently he had a heated argument with his wife in the car and told her angrily get out of the car and he recalls telling her numerous times if it would make you happy why don't you leave? However they are extremely happy currently and he would like to know what is the status with talaaq falling?

Q:

1. I would like to know is it permissible or accepted for a husband to divorce his wife without the knowledge of his wife?

2. Is the marriage of a couple valid even without witnesses just by signing a paper together without witness, wali and mahr?

3. The husband insists that it is between the couple and Allah and Allah is their witness, is this acceptable in any means?

Q: My father signed a written divorce for my second mother. He has given three divorce at one time. It is written like I divorce you, I divorce you, I divorce you. Will it be taken as complete divorce or only one?

Q: A brother wants to divorce his wife. What is the correct procedure according to Hanafi Fiqh? What kind of Talaaq should the husband give?