Punishments in an Islamic Country

Q: Why does Islam give permission to kill a Muslim after becoming a kafir?

Q: What is the punishment in Islam for someome who physically hurt someone (not wife) badly without any reason? What is the rule of Islam on this?

Q: About a year or so ago, a family member of mine was driving his car extremely fast and this lead to an accident which caused the death of his cousin and his cousin's wife. The question I would like to ask is whether he has to pay diyat for the accidental cause of the death.

Q: What is the punishment in Islam for a married man who has committed zina with a prepubescent girl younger than nine years of age?

Q: Is violence committed in the name of blasphemmy prohibited in Islam?

Q: What should a person do if a cruel leader victimizes his women and police is also under the influence of that leader, in a Muslim State? Does Islam say to remain quiet and bear that cruelty?

Q: I want to know about the punishment given for committing zina. They say they should be given 100 lashes. My question is, what if the two that committed zina, never committed it with another person, and both are willing to get married, are they still given this punishment?

Q: What is Islaam's view on the Capital Punishment/Death Penalty?

Q: If a person abuses the prophet (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) and the Sahaba should that person be killed?

Q: I am writing you today to discuss a very pertinent issue that relates to the matter of collecting jizya. I was reading a book of Robert Spencer titled Truth About Muhammad: Founder of world’s most intolerant faith his accusations on expulsion of Arab pagans from Arabian peninsula and collection of jizya from non Muslims.

Mr. Spencer accuses that there are only specific non Muslim communities like Jews, Christians, Zoroastrians and Magians that are to be extended the privilege of Jizya payment, in return for protection in Muslim lands. While other group of non Muslims like atheists, agnostics and idol worshippers are to choose between death or conversion. Mr. Spencer bases his assertion while referring to Quran 9:29 where reference for payment of Jizya is only made for people of the book.

My question to you is can non Muslim groups like Hindus, Buddhists, atheists, etc can be asked to pay Jizya in return for protection in Muslim lands like Jews, Christians and Zorastrians?

If the answer is yes what explanation can you provide to Mr. Spencer’s accusation when he rightly pointed out that Quran 9:29 only offers jizya privilege for people of the book. Moreover the only other historical reference in Hadith for other non Muslim groups mentions just Magians and Zoroastrians to my knowledge, furthermore there is no historical reference for idolaters and atheists even though they flourished in Arabia peacefully before Islam gained sovereignty in that region.