situations where talaaq does not take place

Q: I want to ask a question relating to divorce. Actually I went through a certain situation of argument with my mom in front of my wife where I told my mom unintentionally that if you think I am not good with you after marriage I will divorce (talaaq) her and be good with you. But this statement was unintentional and just meant to make my mom realize that I am not changed. Whats the ruling of this?

Q: I want to ask about that while I was talking with my wife (a general conversation) that my family never ever said talaq talaq talaq word. I want to ask that by hearing these words in general conversation does our nikkah ends? Only by hearing. I haven't said any thing intentionally or in anger mood. She just hear that words not directly either

Q: After a serious fight between my parents and relatives and my inlaws, my husband was forced to give talaq to me while I was in a different city. He was told that I asked him for divorce. While I didnt know anything what was happening there. It was told by my parents to ask for divorce. My husband refused to give talaq for first four days then he just gave it forcefully when he was blackmailed by my uncle that he will bring some guys to beat him or from court he will do some fight process and second lie he told him that I cannot go to Saudia without having divorce papers it is necessary. My parents lives here in Saudi and they lied about this. With that fear of being beaten by those guys or for my sake that Ive asked for it so that I could go easily with my 8 months daughter, he signed the papers without even reading it without intentions. He just had a thought while signing that Allah you are watching it that I am not willing to give plz help me.. Then he signed and cried alot. In short, we both were lied to about each other. He didnt know this was happening and he didnt even want divorce and he was told that your wife is asking for it. On the other hand I was told that he gave you divorce by his will. Is this divorce valid?

Q: In the past I had some disputes with my wife. Alhamdulillah things are better now. However, sometimes I have waswasa if divorce may be occurred.

I have several questions but biggest one I will ask now others maybe later. One such instance is as follows that I would like to ask. We had been separated for several months. There was a meeting with some elders about our marriage and it was decided to give us 1 month more to sort things out to get back together. At the end of this meeting, I said something to one of the elders like "okay so we have 1 month to work things out, if things work out she will be back within 1 month and if not then..." and I basically stopped and there was non-verbal expressions. I did not mention "divorce" in that sentence and neither do I believe that was my intention. However, I did sort of in a way imply divorce and afterwards I mentioned to others as well that "we have a 1 month time limit to work things out".

We got back together but a couple of weeks past 1 month. After 1 month passed, I started getting waswasa that maybe I had stated a conditional divorce which I did not realize earlier.

I do believe although I was implying that things will not work out if it goes past one month, I did not intend it to be a conditional divorce upon one month but rather that a decision of divorce would have to be made (so basically I was saying something like so we have 1 month to make a decision).

I don't believe my understanding was that divorce would take place automatically after 1 month, but rather that a decision would have to be made. After 1 month but before we got back together, as part of a conversation I also said something to my wife like "We had 1 month time limit, if things worked out you would be back if not we would be ending it" or something similar like "if not things would be over".

I just want to know if this was conditional divorce. Again I did not use the word of divorce and I don't believe it was my intention.

Q: My wife and I were having a conversation. We were talking about something regarding the sleeping patterns of our child. She wanted to try a different technique for our child who wakes up often at night to feed. I made the statement "Why don't you go to your parents house and try it". Prior to making this statement my intention was she go to her parents house for holiday. However I was aware that certain statements of this nature may constitute talaq. While I was making the statement, the thought and feeling came in my mind that my intention is talaq. I suffer from waswasa with certain things like whudu and salaah.

Does this constitute talaq?

Q: Me and my husband were talking and he asked me to give him milk, so I was like plain or hot, but he wanted a smoothy like milk. I didn't feel like making it so he was upset. I told him to have good character and show akhlaaq. He said that I do a lot of sabr. So I said, like my step mum? He said yes. (My step mum has a problem with her step mum in law and she dont want to keep her anymore because of issues they have so she said she cant make sabr anymore and she dont want her in her house). Does that consitute a divorce? Because he said he did a lot of sabr.