Q: I'm stuck in a weird situation. I am studying in Birmingham city university. Alhamdulillah we have been told by our elders not to criticise people from different school of thoughts than yours. I follow Deoband school and go in tabligh jamat very often. In my university saalfi brothers are trying to take over, like they made the Islamic society majorly run by them. Problem is'nt that but the problem is that for Friday jumma from last 12 years an Imam has been coming. They asked him to not come and they (students) have started to lead the jumma. They do the juma kutba which is after second azan in both English and Arabic, like they start in Arabic a bit and mostly start speaking in English. My fist question is that is khutba like this valid, secondly I've seen them doing maasa on normal socks not the leather ones and they lead the prayer is that acceptable.

Q: I want to ask you what is the procedure of Nikaah in the Masjid. I mean groom and bride should be available in Masjid or only groom? What does Shari'ah say about Nikaah in the Musjid?

Q: I have been married for the past 18 months. My husband lost his job after the first month of marriage. I had a job so therefore I supported him and his family (mother, 2 sisters). His father lives in another state and visits monthly. During the course of our marriage, I got pregnant and had a baby girl. His 2 sisters got married. He had tried to work but ended his job at a store and driving a car due to him thinking that people were after him and something was going on at home. Recently, he started losing weight and was diagnosed with gallstones and gastritis. He was treated with surgery. At this point, I had started working part time to take care of my baby and husband. But we were short of rent money. My husband was very angry 2 weeks after the surgery due to pain and shortage of rent money that he told me to leave the home at 12:00 at night with my 11 month old daughter. His mother succumbed to his anger and told me to take a taxi to my parents home. I refused and stayed because it was night. The next day, as he drove me to my parents home, he told me he would pick me up in a few days. Then as he left me and our 11 month old child their, he said he would pick me up when he had a job. Then he left and called me 1 hour later and said he wanted to divorce me and hung up the phone. A few days later, I called him and said I wanted to come home. Later that same day, he texted me the word talaq 3 times. He also wrote the same thing on Facebook messenger. Please tell me if this counts as irreversible divorce or not. He never spoke these words but wrote them. Now he is saying that it doesn't count because he never said it. Please help. I am currently living with my parents and thinking that I am divorced.

Q: If a person utters the following statement, does it constitute shirk? A person says 'The food was divine'. Is it shirk to refer to food as divine?

Q: Is it haraam to invest money in the share market?

Q: Can we perform the qadha-e-umri (all the 5 salaah of one day) after fajr namaz before sunrise?

Q: Can a person do all fourteen Sajdahs together after finishing the whole Holy Quran?

Q: After urine, istibra sometimes after few minutes or hours some liquid sometime thick or sometime thin liquid drops comes out. Please let me know if ghusal will be waajib? Because when I do wudhu I feel sometime some drops comes out so I have to do wudhu again or ghusal will be wajib on me?

Q: Me and my husband have two children. One has retinal dystrophy and the second has not been tested yet as he is too young. The doctor has told me its a genetic condition that was passed on from me and my husband through recessive genes. Me and my husband are second cousins. My question is would contraception be allowed for me not to have a third child as I have been told it would have a good chance of a genetic problem/disability. If I did have a third child, would I be to blame in Islam if I knew it could be passed on. What if my child hates me when he is older.

Q: We live in the sub Indian continent and we used live in a joint family. After my great grand fathers death my grandfather took care of the family and made wealth with little resource left from by his father.But when his brothers came to age they accused my grandfather of turning their fathers into into his own wealth.My grandfather gave them all the estates industries,shops,land etc which me made from the meager wealth.He also rebuild the few rooms house to 8 stories house so that his 8 brothers could live but his step mother told him to reside somewhere else as he was only child from the first wife.He had 8 brother and 4 sister all from that mother and My grandfather always considered them their own.After the distribution he bought a house in another place to reside there and made a new factory from the wealth acquired after distribution.He made his sons equal own of the factory as they had come to age.The 3 sons maintained the business and my grandfather took retirement.They gave him fixed rent,income or profit as u want to say.My father even told me that they took that amount as a fixed for the business even thou they lived in the joint family and and the family was run through profits of the business.He would just take the Very Important decisions. With Allah (SWT) blessings Our fathers made huge and took the profits and turn it into another factory with the grandfathers permission obviously. This time he said that the ownership would be given to the 3 sons and daughter in laws.My grandfather also had 2 daughters one married in a lavish way with gifts before withe money from the first factory.Another eloped with a man and united with the family after few years.They were later given plots as gifts by my grandfather.Our fathers with profits from the factory they made another house again with the fathers permission and was given the same condition.Both My grandmother and father lived with us in that house until their death. Both of them have share in the Factory and the first house.Now in their lifetime they said that the first house would be give to the daughters fully As the payment for the share in the factory and also because they have share in that.My grandmother expired then my grandfather expired May Allah (SWT) bless their soul. Our father without any disagreement agreed to give the whole property of the first house as few amount of their share and payment for the factory's share. Now I want to know that does this make the property of the sons haram to have and was there anything wrong with the inheritance.