Talaaq

Q: I am married to my husband on 15 July 2009. After four years he say divorce to me twice in one setting then my family said we make this home again and you will ruju with him. 

I am OK and and we start life again. Last year he again divorce me three times in one setting. My family contacted mufti and told him the whole situation. He say there is a gap in wordings and this is the last chance to continue with him and ruju. 

Now this year on 5 Jan, he again say divorce three time in one setting. Now my heart say something is against the laws of Allah. Please give me your option not live with him. He again say I am not mean it.

Q: When I get angry I used to say divorce me to my husband. Then to explain he said "I divorce, I divorce, I divorce. If I say these 3 words it would dissolve our marriage so don't say that again and again especially over the phone when you can't predict the other person's mental state and this can destroy our marriage, so don't ask for it again'. 

So my question is, does divorce take place by saying this because he was just explaining, without any pause, that I shouldn't ask for it again and again.

Q: If a person asked a mufti that I used the pashto word "zan talaq" to my wife 2 times like to her hands etc. Does divorce confirm by this asking? 

If a husband calls his wife hand as zan talaq, what does it mean while the husband doesn't intend for divorce?

Q: If one talaaq happened after khalwat e sahiha but before intercourse, would that constitute talaaq e bain? 

I have read somewhere that majority of the Hanafi, Maliki and Shafi scholars have a view that its an irrevocable divorce, however the wife will still have to spend the full iddat and will be entitled to full mehar.

Q: My husband said to me in a text message: "Go, I release you" and "I have no claim on you; you can live your own life." 

Does this count as a valid divorce (talaaq) according to Islamic law? I want to know if these words constitute a clear divorce or not. 

Q: My maid has a situation. Her husband hit her and forced her out of the house two years ago. Then, two months ago, he sent her two divorce notices at the same and one notice saying that she is of bad character and he wants custody of the children. Now, five days ago he sent a third divorce notice. 

He signed the first two notices but didn't sign the third one. He said he did it because he wanted her to feel threatened and come back herself. 

After sending all three notices with the last one sent five days ago, now he wants to get back together. 

Is their Nikah still valid, or are they completely divorced now?

Q: If a husband puts a conditional talaaq on his wife, after that if he gives his wife a Talaaq e Baain, does it still constitute as a talaaq?

Q: Does talaq take place if the wife remembers the husband saying talaq as a joke but the husband genuinely does not remember at all? It happened a few months ago when both didn’t have much knowledge about it.

Q: Me and my husband were talking about something. I said to him mostly as a joke that I’d like to adopt a child one day from Africa and he got angry thinking that I’m attracted to African men and wanting black kids. This was a misunderstanding but my husband said "I divorce you and you can find another man". He said in Arabic utalliquki which can mean "I divorce you" (now) but my husband said that he meant in the future which counts as warning and not talaq. So I’m scared because this word utalliquki can mean both. 

Is this case treated by the intention of my husband which was to speak about the future "I will" even though he used this word utalliquki.

Q: If a person makes dua and in his dua, he says that he wants to divorce his wife. Is it counted as a divorce?