Q: If someone says Talak sentences multiple times through inner voice (heart, mind, etc.) with closed mouth, and no audible pronouncement, and the speaker was unable to hear himself in an audible voice, just the inner voice (heart, mind), Does talak take place?
Q: My husband said in an argument when he was in a lot of anger because I hide some things from him. He said from now on if you tell a lie then divorce. And asked me to say these words from my mouth but I refused and started crying. So after that incident we are living happily but telling a lie means smaller lies or hiding daily basic routine things to him. So in that case I have tell lies in daily routine. After one years time, like I hide somethings, that spoil his mood so in that case is our divorce happen or not?
Q: In shariah law there is a system called Faskh e Nikah which allows a woman who is abused in a marital relationship and has legitimate reasons to end the marriage can do so through a judicial decree without consent of her husband.
I would like to know is this system proven from Quran, Sunnah and Hadith?
Secondly, what are the legitimate reasons that will allow a Muslim woman to exercise her right to annul the marriage through this system ?
Q: There was an argument over a mobile message. My wife said, "Leave me." I told her not to say that, but she repeated, "Leave me." I replied, "You are free," but I had no intention of divorce, nor did I know that saying such words could lead to a divorce. Later, my wife told me that I had used the wrong words. After that, we reconciled.
Four months later, during another argument about household chores, my wife said, "I won't do this." I replied, "Then you are free," but at that time, divorce or separation was not being discussed. Later, I realized that I had said something wrong.
How many divorces have taken place in our case?
Q: If a husband says to his wife "you not married to me", does it mean the marriage is over? There was intention in saying this.
Q: What if the husband says 2 times talaq at the same, will this happen? What is according to shariat ? If he gives 1 again will talaq happen?
Q: I am married to my husband on 15 July 2009. After four years he say divorce to me twice in one setting then my family said we make this home again and you will ruju with him.
I am OK and and we start life again. Last year he again divorce me three times in one setting. My family contacted mufti and told him the whole situation. He say there is a gap in wordings and this is the last chance to continue with him and ruju.
Now this year on 5 Jan, he again say divorce three time in one setting. Now my heart say something is against the laws of Allah. Please give me your option not live with him. He again say I am not mean it.
Q: When I get angry I used to say divorce me to my husband. Then to explain he said "I divorce, I divorce, I divorce. If I say these 3 words it would dissolve our marriage so don't say that again and again especially over the phone when you can't predict the other person's mental state and this can destroy our marriage, so don't ask for it again'.
So my question is, does divorce take place by saying this because he was just explaining, without any pause, that I shouldn't ask for it again and again.
Q: If a person asked a mufti that I used the pashto word "zan talaq" to my wife 2 times like to her hands etc. Does divorce confirm by this asking?
If a husband calls his wife hand as zan talaq, what does it mean while the husband doesn't intend for divorce?
Q: If one talaaq happened after khalwat e sahiha but before intercourse, would that constitute talaaq e bain?
I have read somewhere that majority of the Hanafi, Maliki and Shafi scholars have a view that its an irrevocable divorce, however the wife will still have to spend the full iddat and will be entitled to full mehar.