Qur'an

Learning and understanding the Quraan

Q: I know that being a Hafiz-e-Quran has virtues, and there is a sahih hadith that says their parents will be crowned on the day of judgement. There is also a weak hadith that mentions they will intercede for ten relatives on the Day of Qiyamah. Despite this hadith being weak, Ulama have said that a Hafiz-e-Quran still has virtues and might intercede and they will go to Jannatul Firdaus.

I want to do hifz because I want Jannatul Firdaus, but I am 26 and struggle to memorize things. It is also very challenging to do hifz in today's busy schedule, where we work 9 to 5 or run businesses, and also have to pray five times a day and give time to family. In this case, what if we don't do hifz but instead learn essential Quranic Arabic words and grammar to understand the Qur'an in Arabic, and study reliable tafsir under a scholar like Tafsir Ibn Kathir or Bayan ul Quran?

Who has more virtues: a Hafiz-e-Quran or a person who is a non aalim but understands the Qur'an, knows what is written in it, is familiar with the seerah of Rasulullah (sallallahu alaihi wasallam), and the stories of all the Prophets (qasas ul ambiyaa), and many other things? Can such a person who is not aalim and Hafiz but has the above mentioned knowledge go to Jannatul Firdaus and have virtues equal to a Hafiz-e-Quran or less or more? 

Imaam going into ruku immediately after reciting the aayat of sajdah and making the intention of sajdah tilaawat in ruku

Q: In Fardh Salaah, as an Imaam, if I read an Aayah of Sajdah, can I immediately go into ruku at the end of the Sajdah Aayah? i.e. (not going down into a Sajdah Tilaawah), but making intention of sajdah in the ruku.

NB: I did this a few items without informing the congregation.

Please can Mufti Saheb inform me what is the correct thing to do.

Basing the Quraan Majeed on scientific theories

Q: 1:  Geocentrism [Quran 36:38-40] - And the sun runs [on course| toward its stopping point. That is the determination of the Exalted in Might, the Knowing. And the moon - We have determined for it phases, until it returns [appearing] like the old date stalk. It is not allowable [i.e., possible] for the sun to reach the moon, nor does the night overtake the day, but each, in an orbit, is swimming

The Quran describes the universe as the geocentric model, where the earth is the center of the universe and everything is orbiting us. In reality, this is not true and everyone at this time back then believed in this model. The sun actually doesn't orbit us, we orbit it instead. It just looks like the sun is moving but actually the earth is just spinning. Muslims "refute" this by pointing out that the sun orbits the milky way, which is true but if the Quran was actually talking about the sun orbiting the milky way, how would that even be relevant to us at that time rather than the common belief of geocentrism? That 230 million year orbit around the milky way has absolutely nothing to do with humanity whatsoever. Besides, the entire solar system and everything within the gravitational region of the black hole in the center of the milky way orbits it, not just us.

Why would the Quran only refer to the sun if it was talking about the gravitational regions of the black hole? Why would the Quran not speak about the very common 7th century belief rather than something absolutely no one knew about?  

It is not allowable [i.e., possible| for the sun to reach the moon, nor does the night overtake the day, but each, in an orbit, is swimming.

In this verse, the issue is that the movements of the sun and moon are described similarly, whereas our model of the universe has the sun and moon's movements as completely different. Why does the Quran discuss the orbit of the sun in the same verse that explains the phenomenon of day and night, if it is not referring to geocentrism?

[Sahih al-Bukhari 3199] - The Prophet (sallallahu alaihi wasallam) asked me at sunset, "Do you know where the sun goes (at the time of sunset?" I replied, "Allah and His Apostle know better." He said, "It goes (i.e. travels) till it prostrates Itself underneath the Throne and takes the permission to rise again, and it is permitted and then (a time will come when) it will be about to prostrate itself but its prostration will not be accepted, and it will ask permission to go on its course but it will not be permitted, but it will be ordered to return whence it has come and so it will rise.

Muslims often respond to this hadith desperately trying to reinterpret it. The usual Muslim response is "well what does 'prostrating' mean or what does 'goes'mean?" ..Well if these aren't signifying orbit, then what does "underneath the throne mean"? I think we can all agree that this hadith says the sun at some point is underneath the throne of Allah. And as we know, the throne of Allah is above the waters which are above the seventh heaven of the flat earth. The only way for the sun to be underneath the throne of Allah is for it to be above the earth, which would fit the geocentric world view. Scientifically speaking, the sun is not above the earth and it never will be. This hadith is geocentric, there's no escaping it. [Sahih al-Bukhari 3124]

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