Q: Why is there no Bismillah in the beginning of Surah Taubah?

Q: Are there any evidences in books of Hadith to show that ‘TAHA’ and ‘YASEEN’ are the names of our Prophet (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam)?

Q: I came to know from a local Aalim that the Prophet Idris Alaihis-salam is still alive. Is it true or a false preaching? Please, give proper references from Holy Qur'an and Authentic Ahadiths.

Q: Surah Muzzammil speaks about "Stand in the night except a little", Allah is ordering Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) to read Tahajjud Salaah, what did (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) read in Tahajjud Salaah because Surah Muzzammil was still the begining of revelation after Iqra'? 

Q: I came across a Durood that is used by some sufi's during their healing sessions, they claim that this durood is based on the names of our Prophet (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) that are hidden in the Quran, the two names are 'TAHA' and 'YASEEN'. The complete Durood is “Bismillaahi yasin habeebullah wa taha rasoolullaah Salalahu Allyahi Waslam”.

1. Is it permissible to recite this darood.
2. Is it permissible to recite other names of our Prophet (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) with the intention of seeking Allah's help, mercy and cure. I don't think the recitation of the Prophet (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) name will lead to shirk, because many of those names appear in Quran along with words like 'YA'.

Q: What does it mean to fear Allah?

• 3:130-131 (O you who have believed, do not consume usury, doubled and multiplied, but fear Allah that you may be successful. And fear the Fire, which has been prepared for the disbelievers.)

Considering the above ayaat, why did Allah tell us to fear Hell. Aren't we supposed to fear Allah only? Is fearing Hell (or the fear of not going to Paradise) somewhat similar to fearing Allah? However, on the flip side, why would somebody fear Allah if he doesn't fear Allah's punishment! I am getting very confused and uneasy over this apparent contradiction.

• Also, as far as I know, Allah could also punish a person in this world, for example by causing somebody else to beat that person up. Does that mean we should also fear other people since Allah could inflict punishment on us through them?

I would really appreciate if you could give me detailed explanations regarding the above questions.

Q: Why did Allah Ta'ala use a Female Noun (Isim mu'annas) to refer to Adam (Alayhis Salaam) in the following verse (7:189);  "Huwa allathee khalaqakum min nafsin wahidatin wajaAAala minha zawjaha (It is He Who has created you from a single person, and (then) He has created from him his wife). why Allah used the word 'nafsin wahidah' , "minha" and "zaujaha" to refer to Adam.

Q: I heard that Surah Faatiha is not part of quran. Please clarify is Surah Faatiha Allah's kalam? Please explain in a simple way so that I should not become mislead. I am really worried about this question, I do not want to lose Imaan.

Q: I am writing you today to discuss a very pertinent issue that relates to the matter of collecting jizya. I was reading a book of Robert Spencer titled Truth About Muhammad: Founder of world’s most intolerant faith his accusations on expulsion of Arab pagans from Arabian peninsula and collection of jizya from non Muslims.

Mr. Spencer accuses that there are only specific non Muslim communities like Jews, Christians, Zoroastrians and Magians that are to be extended the privilege of Jizya payment, in return for protection in Muslim lands. While other group of non Muslims like atheists, agnostics and idol worshippers are to choose between death or conversion. Mr. Spencer bases his assertion while referring to Quran 9:29 where reference for payment of Jizya is only made for people of the book.

My question to you is can non Muslim groups like Hindus, Buddhists, atheists, etc can be asked to pay Jizya in return for protection in Muslim lands like Jews, Christians and Zorastrians?

If the answer is yes what explanation can you provide to Mr. Spencer’s accusation when he rightly pointed out that Quran 9:29 only offers jizya privilege for people of the book. Moreover the only other historical reference in Hadith for other non Muslim groups mentions just Magians and Zoroastrians to my knowledge, furthermore there is no historical reference for idolaters and atheists even though they flourished in Arabia peacefully before Islam gained sovereignty in that region.

Q: In the kitaab Tajweed for beginners, by Darul Uloom Azaadville, it is mentioned that to pull a Madd Asli for more than 1 Alif or less than 1 alif is haraam. Is this the Fiqhi Hukm?

If the Laam Of Allah in Tasmiyyah is pulled slightly more than 1 alif or the Ain in the first ayat of Surah Fatiha as is common nowadays, would the reciter be committing a major sin & be guily of committing a haraam act?

No doubt one should'nt read in this way but i dont think anyone would be doing this intentionally. nevertheless, does it mean it is haraam?

In the same kitaab, it is mentioned that Ghunnah Ikhfaa etc is mustahab & the omitting of it it Makrooh. Does this now mean that someone who is in the habit of always leaving it out, be committing a haraam act? (as is the case of other Makrooh acts?).