Inheritance
Q: A deceased is survived by a wife, daughters and brothers and he does not have any sons or parents. Will his brothers inherit or not?
Q: A deceased is survived by a wife, daughters and brothers and he does not have any sons or parents. Will his brothers inherit or not?
Q: Can a person make a wasiyyat for a murtad and if he makes one does it have to be fulfilled?
س: لو أدخل الشخص نقوده في البنك التقليدي، و زاد البنك النقود الربوية على نقوده الشخصية، و بعد زمان مات هذا الشخص. هل لأقرباءه حق الميراث في تلك النقود الربوية؟ و هذا هو الحال في كثير من الأسر الإسلامية حتى في الدول الإسلامية.
س: لو وقع من الشخص اشتراء شيء (مثلا السيارة، كومبيوتر و إلخ) باستعمال التمويل الربوي من البنك التقليدي - هل الإنتفاع بهذه الأشياء جائزة لأهله و أقربائه؟ هل هذه الأشياء تعتبر جزءا مباحا من الميراث لورثاء هذا الشخص، والتي يجب قسمها بين الورثاء؟ و هذا هو الحال في كثير من الأسر الإسلامية حتى في الدول الإسلامية.
Q: We have only one daughter. According to the Shariah the distribution of property in inheritance after one passes away says she receives half of her father's wealth. However we want to bequeath the other half of the wealth to her as a gift after our demise. Is it permissible?
Q: I need your shariah ruling on the following matter. A property was sold in 2003 for an agreed sum. The seller, represented by executors and heirs duly signed the purchase and sale agreement. The purchaser paid the transfer duty to SARS via the conveyancer. To date, transfer of the property has not taken place. Some executors and heirs who signed the agreement are now deceased, thus estates upon estates had to be finalised causing indefinite delay in transfer.
The new heirs are not willing to honour their parents signatures on the agreement, reason being:
At present, papers are ready for transfer, pending the signature of a few heirs. If the seller does not honour the agreement, the purchaser is now seeking High Court ruling for finalisation.
Does the seller have any reason to dishonour this agreement?
I seek the shariah ruling, hoping to resolve this matter.
Q: I have been appointed a trustee of a wealthy man. He has asked me to be responsible for his company and make sure that his inheritors (wives and children) receive their portions and give one third in charity. Please advise me. If you can recommend any reading material in english this would also be helpful.
Q: I own a certain property. i have rented it out and i collect the rent from it every month, after my death, i want this house to go to my daughter,so what i did,i have decided that i have sold her the house for half a million rand and the rent that comes in every month, that is her way of paying me,and if i die before its paid, its maaf, i already transferred the property on her name?
Q: My uncle financially helped my father in buying a house in which we are currently living 32 years back without telling that he is giving loan to my father He is living in uk and in these 32 yrs also he never talked about this or about other money he gave to my father. Now after 3 yrs of my fathers death when we want to sell this property he is asking 50 percent of the money showing one letter inwhich my father has written to him that his name will also be in deed. But my father for the whole life told that this is his property and his brother has only helped him.
What is sharaii ruling in this situation?
Does uncle shariatan has any right on this property?
We are ready to give if shariat says that he has right otherwise not and he is father has intentionally cut his name from the deed and so he can go to the court also. I know nothing about these things. I only that my father was not liar. What should I do?
Q: My father bought a property in 1984 in just Rs 40000. Of this 40000, 20000 was given buy his elder brother. The selling deed contains only my father’s name. For all of his life my father said us that the property solely belongs to him and he has just taken help from his brother. We are staying there. My father and we worked hard to maintain the property. My father invested a lot in 1990s and 2000s to repair it. Of course this time also he took help from his same elder brother. In 1999 my father’s elder brother wrote a letter in which he wrote that 50% is yours and 50% is mine. In reply to this letter my father wrote him that “why did you write all these in letter. If u had asked me I wud have given u full. But now my wife is angry with me.” However my mother always said to my father “if possible give me a small house but of yours”. In reply to this letter of my father, his brother wrote that “I have written all these only to show to my wife.” Then again in 2006 my father’s brother told I have gifted u the property (verbally). In 2009 my father died. Now in 2012 my father’s brother is again telling us that 50% of the property belongs to him because according to him on the selling deed of the property there is written on letter “I”. And he is telling that this was my name and my mother has done something to erase his name. However there is no role of my mother in all the external works of house. And at the same time when it was asked to him that when he gave 20000 to my father did he gave with this intension that 50% share will belong to him? He said no there was no such intension; I had given to my brother without any intension. The current value of the property is 15 million. Now my question