Those situations where Talaaq takes place

Saying "Me tumhain talaq deta hu"

Q: While we were fighting on some issue I said to my wife that Me tumhain talaq deta hu 2 times. One time clearly and the 2nd time she kept her hand on my mouth so words were not delivered clearly. That time I was in anger. After that I felt that I have done a big mistake. We love each other and never thought to leave each other. Please guide us what is the state of our relation?

Husband saying "mere traf sa tum Azad ho"

Q: I have a question about my situation with my wife. We were not fighting over anything only I was stopping her from going to a friend’s place. I said to her that ‘I can’t stop you from going to your friends home, tum meri taraf say azad ho, you can go to her place or but my son can’t go with you…you can go wherever you want to go’. I said that twice exactly *mere traf sa tum Azad ho, tumhei main nahi rok sakta liken mera beta us ke ghar nahi jaie ga*. I did not have any intention of divorce because I cannot think of this act. I am worried about my choice of words as I used the word ‘azaad’.  I am so confused and I had no idea that the word ‘azaad’ also refers to divorce. Please guide.

Issuing one Talaaq-e-baain after another talaaq-e-baain

Q: Following up an irrevocable (ba'in) divorce with another irrevocable (ba'in) divorce (al-ba'in la yalhaq al-ba'in):

For example the husband says to his wife: "I am leaving you, I am leaving you" (intending divorce with both statements) or he said: "I divorce you irrevocably, I divorce you irrevocably". In this case, only the first divorce will count and the second will be considered futile. Regardless of how many irrevocable divorces a man pronounces, only the first divorce is effected. The reason being is that the first divorce is irrevocable; hence, the marriage bond between the husband and wife has ended. As such, the second irrevocable divorce will not be able to attach itself on a relationship that has already come to an end. (Culled from Ibn Abidin's Radd al-Muhtar, 3/306-309)

Does this mean that if a husband utters an irrevocable divorce and the wife is still in her idda, then the second irrevocable divorce will still not count due to the nature of divorce? However, if a husband utters a revocable divorce after an irrevocable divorce, it will take into effect during the idda?

Talaaq-e-baain

Q: It has been around 6 months to our marriage & our marriage has not been consummated and   due to some unavoidable circumstances me and my wife decided to put our views in front of a Qazi sahab. On our first visit Qazi sahab told her to obey her husband (me) and go back to my place or take khula as the marriage is completely messed up, to which she denied and said I need two days of time to think over it. After two days, Qazi sahab called me up and said your wife is here and she is not willing to take khula and instead she is demanding for a divorce along wid compensation. So I did it accordingly, Qazi sahab told me to utter a word talaq e bain and I paid her mehr amount + iddah amount + compensation. With a mutual understanding we both signed the papers in front of 3 witnesses. So my question is by uttering a single time talaq e bain is my marriage terminated or are 2 more pronunciations mandatory?