Q: While we were fighting on some issue I said to my wife that Me tumhain talaq deta hu 2 times. One time clearly and the 2nd time she kept her hand on my mouth so words were not delivered clearly. That time I was in anger. After that I felt that I have done a big mistake. We love each other and never thought to leave each other. Please guide us what is the state of our relation?
Q: Need to know if husband says in arguement ek Talaaq jou ek Talaaq ek Talaaq jou. I did not do iddat, as I didn't understand. This happened ten ago. Please advise if I am Divorced and living in Haraam?
Q: I have a question about my situation with my wife. We were not fighting over anything only I was stopping her from going to a friend’s place. I said to her that ‘I can’t stop you from going to your friends home, tum meri taraf say azad ho, you can go to her place or but my son can’t go with you…you can go wherever you want to go’. I said that twice exactly *mere traf sa tum Azad ho, tumhei main nahi rok sakta liken mera beta us ke ghar nahi jaie ga*. I did not have any intention of divorce because I cannot think of this act. I am worried about my choice of words as I used the word ‘azaad’. I am so confused and I had no idea that the word ‘azaad’ also refers to divorce. Please guide.
Q: Is it counted as talaaq if a man tells everyone that he divorced his wife even though he never mentioned the words talaaq to her. Is she divorced from him by him telling people that he divorced her.
Q: I want to know that if a man divorces his wife when she has her monthly, is it counted?
Q: I want to know that signing of divorce papers in civil court really causes divorce when non of them really wants divorce? This signing of papers is necessary for husbands second marriage to show his second wifes parents?
Q: Following up an irrevocable (ba'in) divorce with another irrevocable (ba'in) divorce (al-ba'in la yalhaq al-ba'in):
For example the husband says to his wife: "I am leaving you, I am leaving you" (intending divorce with both statements) or he said: "I divorce you irrevocably, I divorce you irrevocably". In this case, only the first divorce will count and the second will be considered futile. Regardless of how many irrevocable divorces a man pronounces, only the first divorce is effected. The reason being is that the first divorce is irrevocable; hence, the marriage bond between the husband and wife has ended. As such, the second irrevocable divorce will not be able to attach itself on a relationship that has already come to an end. (Culled from Ibn Abidin's Radd al-Muhtar, 3/306-309)
Does this mean that if a husband utters an irrevocable divorce and the wife is still in her idda, then the second irrevocable divorce will still not count due to the nature of divorce? However, if a husband utters a revocable divorce after an irrevocable divorce, it will take into effect during the idda?
Q: It has been around 6 months to our marriage & our marriage has not been consummated and due to some unavoidable circumstances me and my wife decided to put our views in front of a Qazi sahab. On our first visit Qazi sahab told her to obey her husband (me) and go back to my place or take khula as the marriage is completely messed up, to which she denied and said I need two days of time to think over it. After two days, Qazi sahab called me up and said your wife is here and she is not willing to take khula and instead she is demanding for a divorce along wid compensation. So I did it accordingly, Qazi sahab told me to utter a word talaq e bain and I paid her mehr amount + iddah amount + compensation. With a mutual understanding we both signed the papers in front of 3 witnesses. So my question is by uttering a single time talaq e bain is my marriage terminated or are 2 more pronunciations mandatory?
Q: I got married (only nikkah) 9 years ago (rukhsati and proper marriage function was done after 4 years). Me and my wife had some strong arguments over some thing after nikaah and I got hyper and to scare my wife I gave her 2 talaaqs like this I give you divorce, I give you divorce over a telephonic discussion and after the 2nd time I uttered the word of divorce she disconnected the phone. And that's what I wanted.
1. Before uttering the word divorce I kept quite and prayed to Allah Almighty that " Ya Allah I am not going to give my wife divorce and you are the only witness to this thought that I don't mean it. Actually this word which I am going to speak doesn't mean anything please accept my apology". Then after thinking this I spoke to my wife the word of divorce and by speaking the word I started speaking the word in my mind that I am not giving my wife divorce. After she disconnected the phone I called her back after some time like after an hour and apologised to her in a way "I am sorry please listen carefully I haven't given you divorce because I promised Allah that I am not giving divorce and uttered divorce so there is no divorce. Thats what happened 5 years ago I guess. Now one day I heard and came to know my divorced took place.
2.Tell me weather my divorced happened or not? If it happened then what I have to do now?
3. If my divorced happened, then I think after 2 talaaqs I could take my wife back. Was the way I mentioned to take back correct or do I have to remarry her again. One important thing I need to mention here although after nikaah we had no sexual relationship but we were together alone in room a lot of time but we opted not to have sex because we had social fear of having a baby before rukhsati. Please advise.
Q: My husband is a short tempered man. Whenever we have an argument in anger he gives me talaq. He has verbally said many times on different occasions. Am I divorced because he supports himself that I was in anger while I said it.