Those situations where Talaaq takes place

Q: If one says "Me talaaq deta" but hasn't said "houn" (so the sentence "Me talaaq deta houn" hasn't been said), does that count as a divorce?

Q: My husband divorced me many times in anger so is the divorce valid? Now he says that he was out of control.

Q:

1. Is talaaq given during pregnancy valid. 

2. Can nikah be performed to a pregnant woman, i.e. If she fell pregnant before marriage.

Q: My cousin brother gave talaak to his wife while in pregnancy. Is this valid because someone told me that while in pregnancy the talaaq is invalid. Please let me know because my cousin brother has given talaaq angrily? Is there any chance or is the talaaq valid?

Q: Can I be forced to give a talaaq or can a fasakh be given if my wife has decided she wants out of the marriage?

Q: My husband has filed for a divorce according to usa state law which requires us to be separated for 6 months and in between we can reconcile. I want to know the value of this notice Islamically? Also he says he has done istikhara in which the signs say that he should not divorce still he says he will because his parents want. What does Islam say about it?

Q: I have signed on a piece of blank paper and gave this paper to my legal advocate as he required this paper for some legal actions against my wife as she was filling some false cases in the court. When I was out of town my advocate prepared a divorce deed on the blank paper signed by me to counter the false cases initiated by my wife against me. This divorce letter was sent to my wife a month ago and now my wife wants to settle the issues between us and wants to return to me as my wife. Please advice if this divorce can be revocable or not? Pleaase note that I never had any intention of divorcing her. Also I never said verbal talaaq word in front of her. Please I need your advice urgently as already one month and 15 days have passed from the date that letter was sent to my wife who is residing with her parents in a different city.

Q: If a man does not have jima' with his wife but foreplay etc takes place, will she be regarded as ghair madkhool bihaa when it comes to talaaq?
Meaning can he give her talaaq in haidh and would she be baain after one talaaq?

Q: My wife was married before and her husband had passed away , after 4 months of the death of her late husband we got married, my wife came into the marriage with a lot of anger towards life and also couldn't understand why the almighty took her late husband, this made huge fights in our marriage and I gave her 3 talaaqs at one stage. We chose to ignore these because it was said out of anger I also said it to her to scare her and never meant it, as our marriage continued it got worse and on 3 other occasions I said talaaq, but none with any intention. I'm a very emotional man and have a lot of anger. My wife or I never ever left the house because she had no where to go, she is 4 months pregnant now and we having a baby girl, we still live together, but of lately I been seeking the truth, I read somewhere that if you say talaq out of anger it doesn't count? I also read that a woman must agree to a talaq? As women have rights in marriage as we'll. According to some references it must be done in good honour and never labour the next partner? I feel like the talaqs were said out of my own immaturity and my wife shouldn't be punished for it. Are we divorced?

Q: My husband and I have been married since last year July. During this time we have had a tumultuous relationship whereby he verbally gave me talaaq on more than three different occasions. We assumed it was said out of anger and no other processes where taken like the 3 month waiting period or witnesses to say we tried reconciling. I am currently 4 months pregnant and we do not wish to be divorced, for the baby's sake of course and because we wish to have a life together. We have consulted two moulanas and they say our marriage was over with the first talaq given. My question is if the proper process for idaah or that waiting period for reconciliation was not given to us how can our divorce be valid (I do know about the viewpoint that if its said out of anger it is not accepted and we do take how serious the words are, we have both made mistakes). Is there any way forward for us, can he ask for "ruju" because we were not given  information on the proper process. We have been together since, but my husband is no longer in the house due to the moulana saying its haram. For our future and the baby is there a way to reconcile? We do not want to be divorced and even after the talaq was verbally said in anger we would reconcile. Please help me with information and a way forward?