Q: I want to know that signing of divorce papers in civil court really causes divorce when non of them really wants divorce? This signing of papers is necessary for husbands second marriage to show his second wifes parents?
Q: Following up an irrevocable (ba'in) divorce with another irrevocable (ba'in) divorce (al-ba'in la yalhaq al-ba'in):
For example the husband says to his wife: "I am leaving you, I am leaving you" (intending divorce with both statements) or he said: "I divorce you irrevocably, I divorce you irrevocably". In this case, only the first divorce will count and the second will be considered futile. Regardless of how many irrevocable divorces a man pronounces, only the first divorce is effected. The reason being is that the first divorce is irrevocable; hence, the marriage bond between the husband and wife has ended. As such, the second irrevocable divorce will not be able to attach itself on a relationship that has already come to an end. (Culled from Ibn Abidin's Radd al-Muhtar, 3/306-309)
Does this mean that if a husband utters an irrevocable divorce and the wife is still in her idda, then the second irrevocable divorce will still not count due to the nature of divorce? However, if a husband utters a revocable divorce after an irrevocable divorce, it will take into effect during the idda?
Q: It has been around 6 months to our marriage & our marriage has not been consummated and due to some unavoidable circumstances me and my wife decided to put our views in front of a Qazi sahab. On our first visit Qazi sahab told her to obey her husband (me) and go back to my place or take khula as the marriage is completely messed up, to which she denied and said I need two days of time to think over it. After two days, Qazi sahab called me up and said your wife is here and she is not willing to take khula and instead she is demanding for a divorce along wid compensation. So I did it accordingly, Qazi sahab told me to utter a word talaq e bain and I paid her mehr amount + iddah amount + compensation. With a mutual understanding we both signed the papers in front of 3 witnesses. So my question is by uttering a single time talaq e bain is my marriage terminated or are 2 more pronunciations mandatory?
Q: I got married (only nikkah) 9 years ago (rukhsati and proper marriage function was done after 4 years). Me and my wife had some strong arguments over some thing after nikaah and I got hyper and to scare my wife I gave her 2 talaaqs like this I give you divorce, I give you divorce over a telephonic discussion and after the 2nd time I uttered the word of divorce she disconnected the phone. And that's what I wanted.
1. Before uttering the word divorce I kept quite and prayed to Allah Almighty that " Ya Allah I am not going to give my wife divorce and you are the only witness to this thought that I don't mean it. Actually this word which I am going to speak doesn't mean anything please accept my apology". Then after thinking this I spoke to my wife the word of divorce and by speaking the word I started speaking the word in my mind that I am not giving my wife divorce. After she disconnected the phone I called her back after some time like after an hour and apologised to her in a way "I am sorry please listen carefully I haven't given you divorce because I promised Allah that I am not giving divorce and uttered divorce so there is no divorce. Thats what happened 5 years ago I guess. Now one day I heard and came to know my divorced took place.
2.Tell me weather my divorced happened or not? If it happened then what I have to do now?
3. If my divorced happened, then I think after 2 talaaqs I could take my wife back. Was the way I mentioned to take back correct or do I have to remarry her again. One important thing I need to mention here although after nikaah we had no sexual relationship but we were together alone in room a lot of time but we opted not to have sex because we had social fear of having a baby before rukhsati. Please advise.
Q: My husband is a short tempered man. Whenever we have an argument in anger he gives me talaq. He has verbally said many times on different occasions. Am I divorced because he supports himself that I was in anger while I said it.
Q: If a husband gives divorce 3 times in one sitting in the condition of insanity or serious rage then the divorce will be done or not?
Q: One evening my husband said to my 5 year old son that if we don't stop making noise your mum will shout at me so because of that I am divorcing her, I am divorcing her. He said it twice.
Q: I married a hindu who became muslim in England because she was in love with me. As soon as she became Muslim she started having many arguments with me, and was angry with anything I did with my first wife and she even tried overdosing. After I did not agree with her behaviour, which included terrible sexual insults. It has been 1 month since my first wife went back to her family in India and is keen for me to take her back, which I would be prepared to. I did warn her that that we divorced - I want to know whether we are. If I was to meet her and we made love would that be permissible as there is uncertainty whether it is three divorces or two, whilst the other comments reiterated previous warnings.
Q: I have been staying separately from my husband for a year now. We have not initiated any divorce proceedings but we have had various issues which led to us living separately. We are both currently living with our parents. Amongst the issues we have had included family issues, trust issues, and Sunni and Deobandi clashes. I am a Sunni Barelvi Razvi mureed and my husband says that he is just a Muslim. However he is known to associate with friends and Ulema having Deobandi inclination. We have not had any physical form of contact in this year, I am not sure if we had to divorce whether I would be required to observe the normal Iddah period or not. Also, recently I have been feeling lustful and spoke to him about it, however I am not sure if I long to be physical with him or that I am just feeling lustful. I know its not wrong for me to have discussed these feelings with him as he is still my husband. Would it be wrong if we both met to satisfy our lustful desires, I think that since we are not divorced we are stil halaal for each other.
Q: What if you give talaq but spell it incorrectly? Is it still based on intentions?