Those situations where Talaaq takes place

Q: I got married (only nikkah) 9 years ago (rukhsati and proper marriage function was done after 4 years). Me and my wife had some strong arguments over some thing after nikaah and I got hyper and to scare my wife I gave her 2 talaaqs like this I give you divorce, I give you divorce over a telephonic discussion and after the 2nd time I uttered the word of divorce she disconnected the phone. And that's what I wanted.

1. Before uttering the word divorce I kept quite and prayed to Allah Almighty that " Ya Allah I am not going to give my wife divorce and you are the only witness to this thought that I don't mean it. Actually this word which I am going to speak doesn't mean anything please accept my apology". Then after thinking this I spoke to my wife the word of divorce and by speaking the word I started speaking the word in my mind that I am not giving my wife divorce. After she disconnected the phone I called her back after some time like after an hour and apologised to her in a way "I am sorry please listen carefully I haven't given you divorce because I promised Allah that I am not giving divorce and uttered divorce so there is no divorce. Thats what happened 5 years ago I guess. Now one day I heard and came to know my divorced took place.

2.Tell me weather my divorced happened or not? If it happened then what I have to do now? 

3. If my divorced happened, then I think after 2 talaaqs I could take my wife back. Was the way I mentioned to take back correct or do I have to remarry her again. One important thing I need to mention here although after nikaah we had no sexual relationship but we were together alone in room a lot of time but we opted not to have sex because we had social fear of having a baby before rukhsati. Please advise. 

Q: My husband is a short tempered man. Whenever we have an argument in anger he gives me talaq. He has verbally said many times on different occasions. Am I divorced because he supports himself that I was in anger while I said it.

Q: If a husband gives divorce 3 times in one sitting in the condition of insanity or serious rage then the divorce will be done or not?

Q: One evening my husband said to my 5 year old son that if we don't stop making noise your mum will shout at me so because of that I am divorcing her, I am divorcing her. He said it twice.

Q: I married a hindu who became muslim in England because she was in love with me. As soon as she became Muslim she started having many arguments with me, and was angry with anything I did with my first wife and she even tried overdosing. After I did not agree with her behaviour, which included terrible sexual insults. It has been 1 month since my first wife went back to her family in India and is keen for me to take her back, which I would be prepared to. I did warn her that that we divorced - I want to know whether we are. If I was to meet her and we made love would that be permissible as there is uncertainty whether it is three divorces or two, whilst the other comments reiterated previous warnings.

Q: I have been staying separately from my husband for a year now. We have not initiated any divorce proceedings but we have had various issues which led to us living separately. We are both currently living with our parents. Amongst the issues we have had included family issues, trust issues, and Sunni and Deobandi clashes. I am a Sunni Barelvi Razvi mureed and my husband says that he is just a Muslim. However he is known to associate with friends and Ulema having Deobandi inclination. We have not had any physical form of contact in this year, I am not sure if we had to divorce whether I would be required to observe the normal Iddah period or not. Also, recently I have been feeling lustful and spoke to him about it, however I am not sure if I long to be physical with him or that I am just feeling lustful. I know its not wrong for me to have discussed these feelings with him as he is still my husband. Would it be wrong if we both met to satisfy our lustful desires, I think that since we are not divorced we are stil halaal for each other.

Q: What if you give talaq but spell it incorrectly? Is it still based on intentions?

Q: I am facing a difficulty in marriage. My husband had a love marriage before, then for some reasons they split up and he got married to me. Its been 6 years now and we have two kids but my husband have never forgot her and he mistreats me when he thinks of her. Now after 7 years of their split up he has contacted her and asked her to marry him again. In this country there is no rule for two wives and I also heard that in Islam it is allowed if you can treat them equally, which is not possible here. She has told him not to do so and fix his relation with me but he is still insisting on her by sending her love mails etc. I am worried about myself and my kids and cannot find any way, besides I feel like it is not possible for me to leave him as I love him and he is the father of my kids. Even he knows that his relation with her won't last for long but still there is some thing that is pulling him in that direction. I am reciting "Surah Dahr" 11 times for 11 days and "Ya Wadoodo" 41 times every day. In anger he has said several times that he divorced me but he doesn't believe that one can be divorced just by saying. If some one can help me in this I will be great full.

Q: If someone says I have given talaaq and also writes on paper, does talaaq occur?

Q: A husband issues a summons filing for divorce in the High court (the couple are married Islamically and in accordance with SA law) - in the summons he states:

"Wherefore the plaintiff claims: 1. A decree of divorce"

Would this constitute a proclamation of divorce in Shariah? The husband does have the intention to divorce his wife and has mentioned several times that he will divorce her. He has not pronounced the words Talaaq or divorce directly to her. Would the above mentioned works "a decree of divorce" be sufficient to annul the marriage?