Those situations where Talaaq does not take place

Q: If a man utters the word "divorce" not for the purpose of his wife's divorce neither was he addressing her at a time when it was uttered. However when it was uttered a thought of his wife came in his mind. Will it constitute divorce ? It was uttered without any purpose. He was not addressing his wife. He had no intention of referring it to his wife. However when it was uttered a thought of his wife occurred in his mind in a flash and disappeared. Now he is worried.

Q: If a man tells his wife during an argument, ‘I swear to Allah, we will be divorced’ does this mean the couple are divorced?

Q: If Arif writes "You Go" on a sms on his phone with this in mind that he is thinking that he is saying this to his wife Rubab, but on the sms there is no mention of Rubab's name neither her number is displayed in the 'To' Field, its all in the mind. Does the intention count then or is it just nothing. Bearing in mind, Arif suffers from constant wasawas in every aspect of life, marriage, salah, wudhu, ghusl. 

Q: I wrote on mt mobile 3 time divorce and showed it to my mother and told her that if you don't get me married in 6 months to my engaged wife, I will send this message to my wife. I only wanted to scare my mother. Thereafter I deleted it. Did a divorce take place before my nikaah can even happen? 

Q: If a husband wrote in a message "I’m gonna divorce you now"...what does it mean? Does this count as a divorce or not? After he wrote it, he will prepare and send the docs very soon.

Q: I have been married for 27 years. My husband used to beat me but now his health doesn't allow so he calls names. Recently he crossed the line by saying that our nikaah is haraam and as a result our children are haraam. I am very upset and troubled. He prays 5 times a day and even wakes up for tahajjud. He has read the tafseer and been for hajj and umrah.

Q: I have been seperated from my husband for 3 years now. We had no contact at all and he has not paid any money to financially support me. I would like to know if my talaq happens automatically?

Q: Out of fear for a court case, the husband wrote in a letter to a lawyer that he and his wife are in the middle/process of separation, in the Dutch languauge. Does this count as 1 talaq or not even 1 at all? He saw this letter that he had once wrote while he was goimng through his emails. He defintly had NO intention to do so and even did not remember he had written this letter until a few days ago. Will this be 1 talaq or no talaq at all, since there was absolutely no intention and saw he wrote this letter almost 8 years ago. Now they are a very happy couple with three kids alhamdulilah. 

Q: What is the ruling of talaq, if someone mumbles "I am giving my wife talaq" in extreme anger and absent minded state with mouth closed and no tongue move so no clear statement of talaq uttered. If another person next to him try to listen, he would only pick up sound smzztzzztzdzhzzzzzz. Please let me know your interpretation of talaq in this scenario.

Q: My wife was divorced from her ex Husband. When she filed the divorce in America, her ex husband left for Pakistan and he never showed up in the court or Islamically gave her divorce or signed any paper. But the court in America awarded her the divorce and then she got married to me. In Islam did her previous divorce happen. Because after 2 years from the court order she got married to me. So I need to know if our nikah was valid?