Rental based on percentage of turnover
Q: Is it permissible for the lessor to charge the lessee a rental based on his turnover in the case where they fix a ceiling for the maximum rental and they are both pleased with this type of agreement? Some people say that it is permissible, even though the rental is not fixed. They compare this to the case where one hires a rep to sell one’s merchandise and pays him a commission based on the sales he does. Just as his wage is not fixed, but is determined through his total sales, similarly determining the rental of a leased property through the turnover should be permissible. Is this view correct?