Qur'an

Q: I have a question about the practice of Quran Kahaani and Ayat-e-Karima, are these practices considered as Bidaah?

Quran Khani–> A practice in which a group of people or a group of huffaz sit together and complete the recitation of one complete Qur'an and after this act a dua is made and later some hadiya and/or food is served to the group.

Ayat-e-karim–> A practice in which a group of people gather together and recite tasbi-e-Younus about 125,000 times and after completion of this some dua is done and later either some hadiya is given and/or food is served to the group.

My understating is that these practices will not fall under Bidaah, if two conditions are met:

1. If this practice is not considered as an essential part of the Deen, but only done to receive Mercy and Blessing from Allah and for the purpose of Esala Sawab.

2. If this practice is not restricted to a particulate date and time.

I also believe that these acts are extremely virtuous, if our purpose and intentions are clear and if all the laws of Shari'ah are met and not violated during these practices.

The following are the benefits of this practice:

1. Jamaaths or gathering’s always have blessings for example salaat with Jamaat is more virtuous about 27 times better than one that’s done individually.

2. Recitation of Qur'an or Tasbi-e-yunus is a very blessed act, and none accept the ignorant can deny this fact.

3. Serving of food and drink to the students or huffaaz, is again a blessed act.

4. Allah doesn’t reject a dua that’s done in Jamaat.

5. The environment in the house is restored with blessings, due to the presence of jamaat and recitation of Qur'an and Zikr, compared to the modern Muslim houses that are polluted by TV, music and non Shar'iah acts.

Please provide a detailed explaining on this subject, as I need to forward this to my friends.

Q: Please explain to me the tafseer of Surah 4, Aayat 97?

Q: Do we have to do qalqalah only for the quran or for other arabic as well like daal in rabbana walakal ham(D) or at the end of dua e qunoot "mulhi(Q)"?

Q: I would like to know how to read the word "Firqatin" in Surah Tawbah (9:122). Is the Raa read full mouth or empty mouth and is there other ways of reciting it in the other Turuq of Hafs? I've heard the word being recited by many Qurraa' (Shaykh Mahmood Khaleel Al-Husary, Shaykh Muhammad Siddeeq  Al-Minshawi, and Shaykh Mishaary Raashid Al-Afaasy) with full mouth. And recited with empty mouth by other Qurraa' (Shaykh Sa'ad Al Ghaamidi, Shaykh Haani Rifaa'i, Shaykh Shuraim, and Shaykh Ali Jaabir) Why is this? Can you please explain.

Q: Reading the story of Yusuf (Alayhis Salaam) could it please be explained why did Yusuf (Alayhis Salaam) hold back his brother bin Yamin after his brothers promised to bring him back to their father & also explaining this to Yusuf (Alayhis Salaam)?

Q: Why is there no Bismillah in the beginning of Surah Taubah?

Q: Surah Muzzammil speaks about "Stand in the night except a little", Allah is ordering Rasulullah (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) to read Tahajjud Salaah, what did (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) read in Tahajjud Salaah because Surah Muzzammil was still the begining of revelation after Iqra'? 

Q: What does it mean to fear Allah?

• 3:130-131 (O you who have believed, do not consume usury, doubled and multiplied, but fear Allah that you may be successful. And fear the Fire, which has been prepared for the disbelievers.)

Considering the above ayaat, why did Allah tell us to fear Hell. Aren't we supposed to fear Allah only? Is fearing Hell (or the fear of not going to Paradise) somewhat similar to fearing Allah? However, on the flip side, why would somebody fear Allah if he doesn't fear Allah's punishment! I am getting very confused and uneasy over this apparent contradiction.

• Also, as far as I know, Allah could also punish a person in this world, for example by causing somebody else to beat that person up. Does that mean we should also fear other people since Allah could inflict punishment on us through them?

I would really appreciate if you could give me detailed explanations regarding the above questions.

Q: Why did Allah Ta'ala use a Female Noun (Isim mu'annas) to refer to Adam (Alayhis Salaam) in the following verse (7:189);  "Huwa allathee khalaqakum min nafsin wahidatin wajaAAala minha zawjaha (It is He Who has created you from a single person, and (then) He has created from him his wife). why Allah used the word 'nafsin wahidah' , "minha" and "zaujaha" to refer to Adam.

Q: I heard that Surah Faatiha is not part of quran. Please clarify is Surah Faatiha Allah's kalam? Please explain in a simple way so that I should not become mislead. I am really worried about this question, I do not want to lose Imaan.