Q: I am a married women. I saw a dream that I am asking a question that who will come in my life. Suddenly a voice came but no one was their and the voice told me a boys name. This dream was seen before fajar azaan. Please tell me what is the meaning of this dream.

Q: 

1. In today's times we have devices which show time to the second; and such devices(phones, watches,etc) are carried about on  almost every person throughout the working day, since in South Africa people work in accordance with time and are paid accordingly; and it is through such incomes that Imaams are paid their salaries.
2. There are also contractual obligations in respect of time between Muslim musallees and their employers and between Muslim employers and their employees.
3. Both the Muslim employer and Muslim employee contribute to the Imaam's salaries; but more importantly they must be bound by their contractual obligations which involve being punctual.
4. It is common practice throughout South Africa that Salaah times are fixed to the minute; and this is evident from Maghrib and Fajar more so than the other Salaah times. Hence there is no question that time must be kept to the minute and Imaams must be punctual to the minute for each Salaah.
5. Salaah is also not lengthy especially Zohar and Asar; due to employment circumstances in our country amongst other reasons.
6. But some Molanas/ Imaams throw the Sunnah in the face of the congregation (that Nabi (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) used to pitch up later than the scheduled salaah time for Imaamat) to hide behind their own lack of punctuality and discipline regarding respect for time concerning Musallees and their employment related contractual obligations; and such Imaams or Moulanas thereby portray a blunt disregard towards this and hence disrespect the obligations of Musallees and disrespect the arrangement of time set for commencement of Salaah with Jamaat.
7. Please lay out the conditions under which Nabi (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) came later than the arranged time to lead prayers.
8. Also say what is the Islamic ruling in terms of today's South African circumstances relating to Musallee's employment contractual obligations to be punctual , and an Imaam who disrespects such circumstances and selfishly begins Salaah against the arranged times.
9. Is it better for the Imaam to be punctual or is it acceptable for the Imaam to have the attitude that "if anybody goes ahead to perform the Salaah other than me when I am late; such Salaah is null and void (gone!), you must wait for me!"
10. This Imaam fails to attend Fajar with Jamaat more than twice a month; recently in the past week its twice or thrice that he failed to attend Fajar in the Mosque. So when Nabi (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) was late for Salaah, did it ever happen that he never
    pitched up at all for such Salaah (except the time he was on his death-bed)?
11. Yes there a number of Musalleehs that object against this Imaams failure to be punctual; and they are of the view that such conduct by this Imaam is indeed unacceptable.

Q: If the walimah takes place after seclusion instead of consummation of the marriage would the sunnat be fulfilled?

Q:

1. The Hadith: "You should inform me about anyone from you who passed away, indeed my prayer is a blessing for him. I’la us Sunan vol 8 pg 326. Is it authentic?
2. Where it is better to pray the janazah salaah in the sehn of the masjid or in the graveyard where janazah salaah is usually prayed and that place is specifically for janazah Salaah?
3. Making two salaams in janazah prayer. Please give me the references.

Q: When is it Sunnah to drink water; immediately after food or half an hour or so after meals?

Q: My son is badly in debt. I am not in a position to pay his debts off for him. Can I pay some of his debts by giving my zakaat directly to his debtors?

Q: A husband and wife were having a bad fight, she was packing her bags to leave him, he was happy to let her go and he said to her "go, you are free till qiyamah". Does this mean she is divorced from him?

Q: Please view the following quotation and verify:

The default ruling for the meat is Haram unless conditional clause of “إِلَّا مَا ذَكَّيْتُمْ (unless you have properly slaughtered)” is fulfilled which renders it permissible to consume.

So, what is the default when it comes to the meat of animals before they are slaughtered? The default regarding animals as a whole is that they are halal unless there is a text forbidding them.

However, the default specifically regarding eating the meat of these animals is that it is haram until we are sure that they have been slaughtered properly. So, if doubt is introduced, we go back to the default ruling. This is a very important principle that many who write about the issue of slaughtered meats are heedless of, as they throw out the phrase ‘the
default in things is their permissibility’ and ‘certainty is not removed by doubt,’ and they conclude that the default in these doubtful meats is therefore that they are halal. This principle that all of the scholars of Fiqh have confirmed – either implicitly or explicitly – is that the default ruling of animals is that they are haram until it is confirmed that they have been slaughtered properly. And Imam Nawawi (RA) said in Al-Majmu, “This principle is a point of consensus between the scholars, and there is no dispute regarding it,” and he commented (in his commentary of Saheeh Muslim) on the hadith of ‘Adiyy bin Hatim that will be mentioned (if Allah Wills) by saying: “It shows an important principle, and this is that if
there is any doubt regarding the method of slaughter of an animal, it is not allowed to eat it due to the fact that the default ruling is that it is forbidden, and there is no dispute on this.” 

(The Ruling on Meat Slaughtered In the West by Shaykh Abdullah Azzam Shaheed (RA))

Q: In 1987 my father died living behind my mother, 3 sisters and 1 brother. The estate is a plot of land of 7566sqs ft with a constructed house of about 2500sqft. My mother, brother and one sister till her marriage and one sister with her husband and kids were staying in the house. Till 1998 nobody did the division of estate. However, my mother and brother were using the house and the open area as per their wish. They kept tenants in the house and open area to people for use to earn money. My two sisters left the house in 1991 and 1998. I asked my mother that as division has not been done so I should get the share from the earnings from the house. But no action was taken at that time. In 2009 when I lost my husband at the funeral my brother said to divide the estate of my father. However from 2009 there were only discussions and nothing was decided jointly. But my brother proposed that he will take full house and will give open area as share to the sisters. When in 2012 I told to my brother that I will also stay in the house he does not let us enter after several times saying that he has no objection. And he is earning from the house and not let us enter the house to stay. 

1. Does Shariah allows my brother and mother use the full house alone from 1987 as per their wish?
2. Is there any share for us from the earnings because we are also share holders of the house?
3. Can we sisters claim for part of the constructed portion & unconstructed portion according to the total area we can get from the whole property?
4. If at all we get the portion of of the house it will be too small to use and it will require some basic renovations. Who will bear the cost?
5. If we want to demolish the part of house which we may get after division, then who will bear the cost for pilling pillars for saving my brothers portion?
6. He is not letting us enter the house and I am staying on rent. But he is staying free in our father’s house. How this can be solved? Is he not responsible for our rents?

Q: I have a question regarding the consent of a wali in a hanfi nikah? I have done extensive research on the topic and in many instances it states that a wali is advisable but not entirely required in all circumstances. Can you clearify this for me?