Q: Please advise me. During an argument I said to my wife "we're over" with the intention of divorce. Then two days later I said to her "stop calling me, its over" again with the intention of divorce and then a week later I said to her "you're on your own" with intention of divorce. Then I gave her one written talaq in a letter. So now we find out she is pregnant, can I take her back or not?
Q: Agar mian bv main larie hoti ha aur mian bv say kahe k aj k bhad agar tm muj par apni kamie kharch karti ho tou tm aur tmri kamie mj par haram ha plz batian k shariat main is ka kia hukam ha. Un ka rishata khatam to nei ho ga agar wo aisa karti ha
Q: Mera sawal ye hai k kinaya (unclear) alfaz se talaq-e-bain ho jati hai aur biwi foran nikah se nikal jati hai. Tajdeed-e-nikah se pehle agar biwi ko dusri aur teesri talaq bhe de di jai (sarih ya kinaya) to kia wo talaq bhe valid honge ya zaaayi' ho jain ge
Q: I wanted to ask what is my iddat period after khula? The reason behind khula was that my husband dont come near me or talked to me for 3 years inspite of living in the same house. We lived like strangers under one roof sleeping in different rooms.
Q: My question is that if a man says talaaq to his wife once and says twice in English that you are no more any more. Does talaaq happen here or we just consider it as one talaaq or is it a complete talaaq?
Q: My question is regarding talaq-e-kinaayah.
1) Husband and wife separated after living together for 3 and a half months, based on the marriage not being consummated. Wife went back to her parents’ home situated in another country to which the husband had no objection, infact encouraged some time apart. A month after the separation there was a heated argument between the husband and the wife’s family, which ended with the husband messaging the wife “I have nothing to say to you anymore, may Allah show the one who has wronged”. (It is also noteworthy that a week prior to this, the wife had asked the husband if he wished to continue with the marriage and his response was silence) Two weeks after the argument, the husband’s father openly admitted to the wife’s father and their common relatives on several occasions that the husband did not intend to carry on with the marriage and wants to give talaq. Upon being asked to give talaq, he said he wants the wife to ask for talaq and will divorce at a later stage. Later that evening, over the final whatsapp conversation between the husband and wife, the husband told the wife “take care and bye forever, I wish I never see you again….” And “…we will soon be na mahrams” After this encounter, the husband has blocked all contact with the wife and has had no contact ever since. The husband contacted the Home Office UK and informed them that the marriage was no longer subsisting with no intention of living together as spouses. Based on this, the wife’s spousal visa was cancelled and a notice was sent to the wife by the Home Office. The husband’s family asked for the gold back which was given to the wife as a gift. On one hand they claim that since the marriage no longer exists, they have a right to receive the gold back. On the other hand, they claim that talaq has not gone through as it was not explicitly given by the husband. Kindly clarify if marriage is over based on the kinaya words said and no intention of continuing with marriage.
2) If yes, Is this considered Talaq-e-bain or raji’?
3) Will wife’s Iddah begin from the time the kinaya words were uttered by the husband or from the time the wife found out she was divorced, and what to do in such a situation regarding the iddah term?
Q: Mery shohar ne mujhy kaha ke yahan se chali jao. Hamara rishta khatam hai. Mai ne dil may tumhy talaaq di. To kya talaq waqi ho gayi?
Q: If a husband and wife argue and he tells her "pack your bags and go to your mother" and she asked if it is a divorce and he replies yes. Secondly if he says "If you can't get over, you can go" and she again asks if it's a divorce and he says take it how you want and thirdly the wife says lets get divorced and he never spoke to her correctly and just said yes without any intention. Would all three be considered talaaq?
Q: I said to my wife weeks ago: "I have to go" intending a kinaya divorce and she said "are you serious" and I said "yes". Days later because I was unsure whether it took place and I wanted to be sure and I said alone in a room but addressing her in my heart "I intended a kinaya divorce. You are free" So what took place now? Kinaya or Sareeh and how many times?
Q: In reference to the context of ending the marriage, my husband said to me these words, "I am ending it now. I will send you legal papers each month (3 months), give you dower money and Rs. 10000 each month for my son. Only thing between you and me is our son if you allow. You have your life independent in every way. Send me your address, if you will not send me address then I will get it my self". Now he says that I said these words and said I will send you divorce but I did not act upon accordingly. Can you please guide me whether these words count towards my divorce by my husband or not. I am much confused as the words show his intention to send me divorce.