Q: Last night I was in bed when I was breathing I could hear talaaq. At first I thought it was noting then I did it again again. It was like I was saying the words direct but in a breath and my wife was with me but she was busy reading a book and I did not tell her this. Please help as I have heard until the wife does not hear the words, the divorce is not valid.
Q:
1) When I said things like "if until then this doesn't change, I go and leave you" , really intending to leave then and divorce, and no change took place until that time limit, does a kinaya divorce take place or a sarih? This happened many times. I didn't know that ruling back than.
2) I really left her some weeks ago with a real intended kinaya divorce upon which she asked " are you serious? And I said "yes". The following days I talked to some persons and said things like "I left her, I divorced her, my ex-wife, I dont want her back..." ....while I had thoughts like "you divorced again by that....its over anyway", but didn't care because I really was thinking it's completely over anyway. So I learned in the hanafi school that if you follow a kinaya with a clear sarih then both come into effect. But the contract broke somehow with the kinaya divorce before anyway. So how to understand this? Is following a kinaya with sarih meant that it happens in the same sentence or sitting? Is this all relevant anyway if in question 1) contract broke before.
3) If you say unintentionally words to yourself that pop in mind like "triple talaq", is that a Problem? Like a song comes to your head and you unintentionally utter the words.
4) If in the aqd it was agreed that wife can any time make use of divorcing right "khula"......does that come in effect if wife for example said like:" if until then this doesnt change we separate " and both agree but no mention of khula ? We wish to reconcile with a new aqd. Is this after these scenarios still possible?
Q: I'm in a complicated situation and have been asking scholars for some guidance through my confusion. I was married three years ago in Pakistan, my husband sent me divorce papers while I was visiting my mother in New York because it turns out he was just looking for the green card. However, by USA law he cannot legally divorce me until he has resided in one state for a year. He has to wait another 6 months to file for divorce. My question is, am I Islamically divorced because he sent papers? I just want to be super sure because my mother wants to look for a rishta but I don't want her speaking to another man on my behalf if I am still married. Also there is the question of idaat, have I completed my waiting period because we have not lived together since July 2015 or do I need to wait 3 months after the divorce has been finalized legally through NY state law?
Q: I like to ask a question about divorce that if a person doesn't know the proper rules of divorce. So in an extremely angry status he says but can't remember how many times, wife also didn't remember and when he calm down he said I didn't have intention to give you divorce at all. He did this already two times in different occasions each time he said he doesn't have any intention to give divorce or leave his wife at all because he loves her. His sister also have anger issues and she is on medication but he is alright but sometimes he becomes extremely angry and start saying things which in normal condition he doesn't want to say. Please explain me what the Shariah says about it?
Q:
1. I would like to know is it permissible or accepted for a husband to divorce his wife without the knowledge of his wife?
2. Is the marriage of a couple valid even without witnesses just by signing a paper together without witness, wali and mahr?
3. The husband insists that it is between the couple and Allah and Allah is their witness, is this acceptable in any means?
Q: I want to know that I gave talaaq to my wife once and then we revoked. After a year there was some problem again and I gave her Talaaq once. After about a week of second time, she started insisting with me that she did not listen that I gave her talaaq so it is not valid because she did not listen but I remember that I had told her talaaq one time. We want to know what Deen says in this case if husband say that he gave talaaq but wife says I did not hear? There was no other person at that time who can give testimony. Also, what Islam says that how we should proceed further as after revoking still there are fights and there is a chance that there may be talaaq again. I have asked my wife to sign a paper in front of Qur'an not to repeat those things which caused the fight because she did not want to bring any elder between us.
Q: A week ago my wife and I were having a huge fight over email. With anger I emailed her the following but had no intention of even stating talaaq. Insha Allah you can provide me with the best explanation. “You said the only way you can have your life back is by me giving you your talaaqs then you got it”. Mufti this is what was said and I did not intend or mean it, I was really angry with previous messages I received from he. I would like your feedback as soon as possible.
Q: My question is if a husband says one time talaaq to his wife about 6 months back, they are not speaking to each other since 3-4 years. Did talaaq take place. Please let me know.
Q: My question is my husband put adultery charge on me. My uncle said that your husband put adultery charge on you so i though that you don't want to live with him that's why I gave your husband mutual divorce agreement. But my uncle didn't tel me before divorce. My husband prepared the divorce agreement and didn't even inform me or didn't even take my permission. Is the talaaq valid?
Q: If a man says the word talaaq only once at a time, is the divorce valid?