Hadith question

Q: I have read a Hadith from somewhere that says that if someone reads Surah Ikhlaas 10 times after Fajr or Zuhr salah, then that person won't commit a sin on that day even if shaytan tries to make him sin. My two questions regarding this are: 1. Does this mean it's impossible for this person to sin? What if right after he reads it 10 times after fajr or zuhr salaah, he curses or watches zina (not saying this should be done)? Since the hadith says this, then does this mean it's impossible for him to curse or watch TV which is a sin in Islam? 2. Is this hadith even authentic, and can you please send me the link to the source of this hadith?

Shirk

Q: There are many hadiths which speak about how the shirk that the Sahaba used to do before accepting Islam such as worshipping idols and their other sins have been forgiven once they accepted Islam and became Muslims. Obviously, anyone who was never a Muslim before will be forgiven no matter what did they did in the past once they become Muslims because they didn't know about Islam before. But are there any authentic hadiths which talk about a Muslim committing shirk and being forgiven by Allah even after being a Muslim. Are there any hadiths about a person who is a Muslim and leaves Islam by committing Shirk but Allah still forgives him. I don't think I came across any hadith that speaks about a Muslim being forgiven for shirk, only for non-muslims being forgiven for shirk once there Muslim. Can you give me an authentic hadith that say Allah forgives a Muslim who does shirk and also verses from the Quran if it says this? I'm specifically talking about a Muslim who does shirk and is forgiven, not a non-muslim who does shirk and is forgiven when he accepts Islam. Please give me any references that specifically says this.

Renting a house

Q: We have seen a house, which we like to rent, but we found out that the last people who rented this house were prostitutes! Is it alright to move there and read prayers in there?

Equality towards Children

Q: Would a father be sinful for giving some of his children more money than others - for example financing the trip of one child to go abroad but not giving any money to the other child? Another situation might be the father giving one child thousands of pounds for their studies and giving nothing to the other child. Or does Shari'ah allow a father to give one of his children more money than others (whilst the father is still well and alive)?