Making Sajdah-e-tilaawah in a place where Sajdah-e-tilaawah is not prescribed
Q: If the Imaam (who is a Hanafi) performed the second sajdah in the 17th para, what should be done?
Q: If the Imaam (who is a Hanafi) performed the second sajdah in the 17th para, what should be done?
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Q: What is the ruling regarding lying down after the two sunnats of fajr in the Hanafi madhab?
Q: I m Planning to Do a Mineral Water Distributor/Dealer Business. Is it permissible to do this business because it includes selling of Bottles to customers?
Q: When meeting someone after a long time is it sunnat to embrace / hug one another? Is the sunnat for ones head to go towards the right hand side, what other Sunnats have been mentioned regarding the embrace with regards to hand positions etc?
Q: When I pray salah I don't remember how many sajda I do if I did 1 or 2 sajda. If I can't remember how many sajdas what shall I do?
Q: There are certain actions that we do that, although do not come directly from Quraan and Hadith, yet they are derived from them. For example, people read ayats of Quraan or duas and blow into some water and drink it or sprinkle it around the house and stuff. I also have been told by someone to read some surahs and durood shareef and blow into the water and drink it which assists in preventing effects of nazar etc. Here it is not done with the intention of any ibaadah, but rather as a medicine for an illness. Will these types of actions be considered as Bid'at? There are many wazifas like these which people have become accustomed to nowadays.
Q: Is birthday parties haraam? If a person sends to me a piece of her birthday cake, will it be haraam for me to eat? To send ones children to
birthday parties will it be also haraam? Please explain this issue well and if it is haraam why?
Q: Could you please give clarity on the issue of talaaq. If I have said to my wife that we should separate and subsequent to that we are both in agreement that our marriage is over. Will this be considered a talaq? Secondly, if i have uttered the words, I hereby give you a talaq and she records it on her cellphone, when nobody else is around, will that stand as a valid talaq? Lastly, if I have said the words and the same night my wife states that she has started spotting (starting menstruating), does it make the talaq invalid or is it simply a case of the Iddah period being moved till after spotting ends?