Q: I was wondering what the best ways to prevent evil eye/naaar are? And what are we to do if we Muslims get evil eye/nazar? 

Q: When does Qaza namaz begin for all prayers?

Q: Suppose one is reciting Quran sharif after Asar or Fajar Salat and a Ayat comes when it is mandatory to offer a Sajda. Then is it allowed to offer a Sajada because as per my limited knowledge a Sajda is forbiddend after Fajar salat till tulu aftab and after Asar salat till Magrib.

Q: Is it permissible to recite memorized part of Quran sharif without touching it when the ghusl has become farz or mandatory?

Q: Is it permissible to recite Quran sharif at the time of zawal?

Q: I am trading in Indian share market. When I purchase a share it comes into my demat account (SHARE HOLDING ACCOUNT) after 3 days. Whereas when I sell the share it goes off from my demat account after 1 day. I know that it is forbidden to sell which is not in your possession. I have few questions in my mind.

1) As per the Indian stock market system I can purchase and sell at any time. But as per many Muslim scholars we should sell only when it comes into our possession. So I sell the shares after 3 days only though if I suffer losses. If I see losses then can I sell the shares before 3 days?

2) When the share are in my possession after 3 days then sometimes I want to sell it first and the buy it later on the same day. Is it a short sell? I want to clarify the mechanism for this scenario. I have 20 shares of xyz company in my account. I have sold it at higher amount and bought it at lesser amount on the same day. That means it should be deducted from my demat account and then again should be added to my account. As explained in point 1 it should take 3+1 day to complete the cycle. But this does not happen technically. Technically the shares remain my demat account. My question is- Is it permissible to do so? Or If I want to rebuy the shares then should I but it next day so that it goes from my demat account and then again comes into my account?

Q: I have an important concern in which I need a clarification from you please. I will explain you the scenario first for your understanding. Two Nikaahs. The first one is mine, the Nikkah is completely based on Sunnah which is insha Allah will be very simple and with proper mahar, this nikkah commences on the first day night of the second nikkah which is going to happen on the second day noon. The second day nikkah is for my sister. This nikaah is also with proper mahar and no dowry, but this Nikaah is done based on the traditions that take place in our place with Kuthbas and fatiha by the imaams and they recite Alli kuth bainama in the kuthba which here local scholars confirming this as bida'h. So on this second day my sisters husband is arranging a waleema in which he does not collect single penny from his wife's family. My question is can I Share my waleema with him? I mean, I need to give waleema right? Can me and my sister's husband share financially and give waleema to our family and relatives. Is this bida'h? Please I need your valuable input based on Shariah Sheik.

Q: I was watching a religious show on TV, there was this Mufti who said that we should not offer salah behind a Deobandi since they say bad things about RasoolAllah (sallallahu alaihi wasallam). How should we reply to such people who say such things and are misguiding the innocent people and creating doubts in their hearts and minds regarding the Ulamas of Deoband?

Q: I stay in a rented apartment which is being shared between six people including me. A few days ago my friend (ex-roommate) had come to stay at our place for few days, and as a good gesture my other roommates allowed him to stay, but due to some unavoidable circumstances his stay got extended by a week and hence my other roommates asked me if he could pay us a small amount as he is staying longer and facilities such as Electricity and water is being used by him. So I told my friend that he will have pay a small amount, he said how come we are asking him to pay and all, so I told him we will discuss it later in the evening as I was getting late for the office, meanwhile he messaged my other roommate and enquired with him why we want him to pay the share. Now that conversation went little wrong and later he confronted my roommate and had a quarrel with him in abusive language, that he won't give the rent share and said we are cheap kind of people who are asking for rent and left our place after that, later on he posted about this incident in a whatsapp group where all my other friend s are present and they all stared to scold us for asking him for rent share and the conversation here as well went wrong and people stared to abuse each other and I'm being held responsible for everything. Now my question here is:

1. Are we wrong that we are taking rent?

2. Has the person did the right thing by posting about the incident on that whatsapp group and abused us?

3. What could be done in order to neutralize the issue.

Q: In Islam it's all about the intention. I read that if a person had an intention to commit a sin and he refrained from that for some other reason than Allah, he will be punished for that sin. So according to this, will a person be punished for being ready to commit shirk with the idea of asking forgiveness? Because I am suffering from waswas for long time. For some reason I thought asking doubt is shirk then I thought of doing that and ask forgiveness from Allah after that I got to know that asking doubt is not shirk but I was ready to ask doubt so will I be punished for this? Do I have to say the kalima and do sahada again?