Q: My question pertains to Muhammad al Faatih. Most of Ahlus Sunnah wal Jama'a believe that he was the blessed conqueror prophecised in the Hadith. However, some from the Salafiyyah at my Uni believe that he was not and the Hadith is referring to the Mahdi. In turn, they say some horrendous things against Muhamad al Faatih and incriminate him with incest, drinking and other Kaba'ir. These Salafi's are doing a lot of damage to the Muslims at my campus. A Shaikh once told me that there is Ijma' of the scholars that Muhammad al Faatih was the conqueror of Constantinople that was referred to in the Hadith. Can I please request as many references to scholars and citations of consensus that Muhammad al Faatih was in fact the one Prophecised in the Hadith? This will help me alleviate the confusion and doubts that the Salafis are imbuing in the minds of the Muslims.

Q: Is it permissible to perform umrah and convey the reward to a deceased? When one conveys reward to a deceased, then does the deceased know of the reward and the person who conveyed it? 

Q: Should a widow's iddat period be calculated by the Islamic months or the western calendar months (ie. August, September, etc.)?

Q: Me and my husband are currently in the middle of a divorce. It is not something I want but their are family complications on his side which means sadly he is taking this route. The way he is giving me a divorce is though written paper which is signed by two witnesses. He will only issue this once to me. My question is I always thought that a divorce needs to be issued three times over a three months period is the way he is divorcing me valid? Also once I receive the paper of divorce my iddah period will begin after this period is over does the rule apply that we can not reconcile and are unable to marry each other again unless I have a another marriage which is genuine and genuinely does not work out (I would not do anything like this on purpose as I know it is haram). Or could we re marry because the divorce has only been issued once?

Q: I want to ask that if a girl has got the 'right to divorce' in nikah nama, how can she divorce her husband if she needs to? Is it right in Islam for a woman to have this right? and if so, can she divorce her husband just by saying divorce three times (as a man can do) or there is some other strategy for a girl who has got this right (of divorce) by her husband?

Q: I want to know that I am going to plan to have a Muslim restaurant in a non-Muslim country in partnership with another non-Muslim person. Wine and beer is common to drink. Can my partner can sell on his behalf in that restaurant which we both own? (the profit from wine and beer will belong to him only).

Q: Will it be correct to use a marketing "catch line" that is not applicable to that type of trade e.g. a person selling motor vehicles that he owns or a company selling foreign currency that it owns, markets the sale of these products as a "zero percent commission" sale when in fact commission is not applicable in this sale as there is no agency involved. This however creates the impression of an excellent deal psychologically.

Q: I would like to enquire about an argument that occurred between my spouse and myself in 2003. During that time I uttered the word Tala Tala Tila. Since then my wife and I lived together as normal lives until Jan 2013. Recently my wife had a small problem and now stated about that incident whereby I had said those words. I confronted her parents in 2003 about the matter and explained the situation that it was not intentional. My wife is insisting that she heard the words back then. Also to note that we got a baby girl in 2007 who is currently 7 years of age. This has since become a problem and we require clarity as to if the marriage is over? I await your feedback.

Q: A person has developed what dentists think to be a viral infection in the mouth. The treatment consists of a mouthwash containing alcohol. (not derived from grapes or kajoor) Is this permissible to use?

Q: In the recent past the Saudi authorities have started keeping haajis in tents put up at Muzdalifah before they proceed to Arafat because of lack of space at Mina. Will the stay of these hajjis be considered as having been spent at Mina like those who actually stay at Mina proper. Secondly hajis returning from Arafat also spend the night in the same area where the tents have been erected at Muzdalifah. Will these hajis be considered as having fulfilled their wuquuf of Muzdalifah (as in reality it is actually proper Muzdalifah).