Q: A person read in his Awwabeen Salaah a portion of his qiraat alound and a portion softly. Is his Salaah valid? If valid, is sajda-e-sahw waajib upon him?

Q: What is the the authenticity of the following hadith? I want to know because it presents a strong proof for pardah. “Indeed the Prophet (Sallallahu Alayhi Wasallam) prohibited women to talk (to Ghair-Mahram men) without the permission of their husbands.” (Tabrani)

Q: I want to know how do I work out the zakaat nisaab?

Q: I would like to know what is the sha'ree ruling on e-bucks. Many family people use it and I want to show them the sha'ree ruling.

Q: We have to read surah waqikya after magrib or isha salat or else can we read it before sleeping?

Q: In maghrib I missed 2 rakaats and joined the 3rd rakat, how should I complete the two rakaats?

Q: My wife was married before and her husband had passed away , after 4 months of the death of her late husband we got married, my wife came into the marriage with a lot of anger towards life and also couldn't understand why the almighty took her late husband, this made huge fights in our marriage and I gave her 3 talaaqs at one stage. We chose to ignore these because it was said out of anger I also said it to her to scare her and never meant it, as our marriage continued it got worse and on 3 other occasions I said talaaq, but none with any intention. I'm a very emotional man and have a lot of anger. My wife or I never ever left the house because she had no where to go, she is 4 months pregnant now and we having a baby girl, we still live together, but of lately I been seeking the truth, I read somewhere that if you say talaq out of anger it doesn't count? I also read that a woman must agree to a talaq? As women have rights in marriage as we'll. According to some references it must be done in good honour and never labour the next partner? I feel like the talaqs were said out of my own immaturity and my wife shouldn't be punished for it. Are we divorced?

Q: If a husband and wife are having an argument and the husband tells the wife something like, "well then go!" But he doesn't say something like to your mother's house etc, does طلاق باءن fall?

Q: A couple was married in COP and the title deed of the house was on both their names because of the COP. The wife passed away without a will being made. The husband and 6 children are the surviving heirs. Do the heirs inherit Islamically from the house?

Q: My husband and I have been married since last year July. During this time we have had a tumultuous relationship whereby he verbally gave me talaaq on more than three different occasions. We assumed it was said out of anger and no other processes where taken like the 3 month waiting period or witnesses to say we tried reconciling. I am currently 4 months pregnant and we do not wish to be divorced, for the baby's sake of course and because we wish to have a life together. We have consulted two moulanas and they say our marriage was over with the first talaq given. My question is if the proper process for idaah or that waiting period for reconciliation was not given to us how can our divorce be valid (I do know about the viewpoint that if its said out of anger it is not accepted and we do take how serious the words are, we have both made mistakes). Is there any way forward for us, can he ask for "ruju" because we were not given  information on the proper process. We have been together since, but my husband is no longer in the house due to the moulana saying its haram. For our future and the baby is there a way to reconcile? We do not want to be divorced and even after the talaq was verbally said in anger we would reconcile. Please help me with information and a way forward?