Asking family and friends for maaf before going for umrah
Q: When you go for umrah, is it necessary that you have to ask familly and friends sorry before you go?
Q: When you go for umrah, is it necessary that you have to ask familly and friends sorry before you go?
Q: I work as a middleman, taking orders for medical equipment, surgical instruments, etc. I make money through charging a commission on the orders. Is this permissible?
Q: There is a miracle in quran called 19 bond. Is it true.
Q: I worked for a certain company for 9 months. My boss once came to me, started swearing me and chased me from the shop. I opened a case against him and we went to court. When he chased me away, he owed me wages for 3 days. Yesterday was my CCMA case and the court ruled that he now has to pay me R5500. Is it permissible for me to accept this money?
Q: Can ointments, creams, and soaps containing crocodile oil and crocodile fat be used on the skin for medical purposes?
Q: If I own a house and write a will and have no children, how is my house distributed? I have surviving parents and siblings.
Q: If a woman has received her 1st talaq, she lives separately from her husband and her idda is over after three mestruations and there is no reconciliation from any party. Does that mean she is free? or the husband has to give her a 2nd and again a 3rd talaaq?
Q:
Q: I want to cross a water pipe that may be ¾” to 2” in diameter from a grave yard nearer to my home to access the water from a water well beside the grave yard. Moreover I also want to clear that the grave yard is almost full of graves and a new grave yard has been inaugurated in the village. Old Grave yard has also a boundary of concrete pillars having barbed wire and I will layout the pipe with the pillars from grave yard side without damaging any grave or pillar because graves are a bit far from the pillars. Please let me know that according to Islamic Point of View, it is permissible to cross the water pipe from a grave yard or not?
Q: I still don't understand about ambiguous statements. I know that wanting a divorce is not the same as issuing a divorce, so how come if a husband says "I don't want to be with her" falls under kinaya statements of divorce when the statement is referring to the future? Nonetheless, if husband says to wife "you'r free" or "you are free", how come this is considered as a revocable divorce and not irrevocable divorce? If there is a difference of opinion on these two matters is it permissible to follow the one that is easier due to hardship reasons?