Touching one's sister in-law with lust

Q: I was like kind of attracted to my sister in law. About a year back my wife and I where having an argument. She was telling me that she does not like me talking to her sister and that I'm always talking to her sister etc. I always like had the thought that the rule regarding where a man touches his mother inlaw with lust nikah breaks may also apply to the sister in law also. I also had doubts as to weather rule may apply to the sister in law. I was not completely sure. Anyway, during that argument I told my wife "you know if I even touch her (my wifes sister) nikah breaks" with no intention of any talaq at all. I wasn't suspending or issuing a talaq I wasn't even thinking about talaq. I just told her that for it to seem as though that is the islamic ruling. I just guessed/made up/ lied for it to seem that that is the islamic ruling and for her not to worry and to give assurance. I had absolutely no intention of any talaq, the only intention I may have had was not to touch my sister in law because its a sin. After couple of months I touched my sister in law with lust then after a few months I may have touched her with lust again. Some muftis told me that no talaq takes place because I had no intention. Another told me that no talaq takes place because that's a completely wrong statement and the statement won't take effect coz that's not the masla etc. Another told me it like falls under explaining a masla. My question is (1) is there any suspended talaq in this situation? If yes how many talaqs take place?  Am I safe and do I have anything to worry about?

Hanafi Imaam reciting an Aayat of Sajdah according to Imaam Shafi'ee

Q: If a hanafi Imaam recites an Aayat of sajdah (that is according to Imam shaafi'ee Rahimahullah and not according to Imam Abu Hanifah Rahimahullah e.g: The Aayat of sajdah that appears at the end of the 17th juz) in salaah, and he is followed by muqtadis of the different mazhaahib, then what should he do in this situation. If he doesn't make sajdah will their salaah be valid? Is there a solution to this?

Inheritance Question

Q: After the demise of my father I came to know that even a needle is divided. My father made so many things specifically for us (we sisters) to use like bed, bed sheet, mattress, study table etc. After consulting we found that these things will also come under division. The share holders according to shariah rules are wife, daughters (05), brothers (02) and sisters (02). There is no son.

My question

  1. If all these also comes under estate, then whether the clothes and books that my father gave me to use will also come under estate?
  2. If the cloths, towel, bed sheets will not come then why the bed and all which my father made for us is not our own and comes in estate to divided?
  3. My father gave us clothes and towel, bed sheets, mattress when we were going to hostel for higher studies. Will these things given to us, will become part of estate?
  4. Under the light of above questions, what about those things that he made specifically for his daughter’s marriage purpose, though the daughters are unmarried.
  5. A few of the things my father before his death kept solely, in the name of his daughters like wise few suitcases, some utensils, beds, racks, almira, etc. These things were always used by us daughters only. Will these things also come sunder estate? If so why, because in that case the dresses he bought for us will also come under estate?
  6. My uncle helped my respected father 25 years back with some amount to buy a house.Now he is claiming 50% in that house. My uncle never did claim such during my fathers life. Now he is claiming after my father's death with us. Is he true/justified in claiming that? He himself has said many times that he had only helped my father at that time and also he was not having any "NIYAT" of having this house at that time.
  7. If some of the shareholders of the estate deny receiving their shares according to shariat rules what shall be done. My father’s brother and sister are telling that these things belong to my father and as we are his children and wife they will not accept share. The share holders according to shariah rules are wife, daughters (05), brothers (02) and sisters (02). There is no son.

Saahib-e-tarteeb

Q: Someone missed Dhuhr for a valid reason, then without forgetting he did knowingly not make it up but prayed, Asr, Magrib, Isha+Witr, then next days Fajr, Dhuhr, Asr then Maghrib time entered, then he made his missed Dhuhr up. In this situation all the prayers he has prayed (before making the missed Dhuhr up) are they valid? Also what if he prayed Asr, Maghrib then Isha time entered then he prayed the missed Dhuhr. In this situation are Asr and Maghrib valid?