Q: My husband and I had and argument recently. I needed my space called my parents to fetch me. While in my room my husband and father argued. My father hit my husband. He responded by telling my father now you will see what I am going to do. He called out my name and said talak talak talak. I was not present in the lounge but reached the lounge just as it all happened. I myself did not here the words pronounced by him. My father mother and an aunt heard him and all say that he said these words . They all admit that he said these words only to stress the point to my father that this is what he can do. Could you please give a ruling on the matter, and would you be able to explain to me what I recently read in the behishty zewar that If talak given only to stress on a specific point gets counted as one even if said 1 2 or 5 times. maaf for asking if the question is against the teachings of islam but would really like an explanation so that I can understand it. Make dua that we all understand the rulings of our deen and accept them.
This whole indecent happened on a Sunday night. Nobody thought there could be a reason besides the anger etc. for the divorce on the following Friday a cousin got sick and needed an aamil during her treatment at the aamil she mentioned three people that have been affected by jadoo. An uncle who`s mind is affected which is the truth. A cousin who will never be able to have children. Which also is true she is constantly at the doctor and my marriage. I must be left with no husband. Does this affect the divorce in anyway. Do the ulama take this into consideration or is left as is. Can jadoo have an effect on your marriage? Can it break a marriage?
Two weeks before this happened I had a dream that I was sleeping with a another man while my husband was there could you please tell me what it means.
A: Apparently, this was not to stress the point. It was to issue the talaaq. He showed you his full capacity and his full capacity is three. Hence three talaaqs have fallen.
The talaaq is valid.
عن عائشة رضي الله عنها أن رجلا طلق امرأته ثلاثا فتزوجت فسئل رسول الله صلى الله عليه وسلم أتحل للأول؟ قال عليه السلام : لا ، حتى يذوق عسيلتها كما ذاق الأول ( صحيح البخاري 2/791)
وذهب جمهور الصحابة والتابعين ومن بعدهم من أئمة المسلمين إلى أنه يقع ثلاث قال في الفتح بعد سوق الأحاديث الدالة عليه وهذا يعارض ما تقدم وأما إمضاء عمر الثلاث عليهم مع عدم مخالفة الصحابة له وعلمه بأنها كانت واحدة فلا يمكن إلا وقد اطلعوا في الزمان المتأخر على وجود ناسخ أو لعلمهم بانتهاء الحكم لذلك لعلمهم وقول بعض الحنابلة توفي رسول الله عن مائة ألف عين رأته فهل صح لكم عنهم أو عن عشر عشر عشرهم القول بوقوع الثلاث باطل أما أولا فإجماعهم ظاهر لأنه لم ينقل عن أحد منهم أنه خالف عمر حين أمضى الثلاث ولا يلزم في نقل الحكم الإجماعي عن مائة ألف تسمية كل في مجلد كبير لحكم واحد على أنه إجماع سكوتي وأما ثانيا فالعبرة في نقل الإجماع نقل ما عن المجتهدين والمائة ألف لا يبلغ عدة المجتهدين الفقهاء منهم أكثر من عشرين كالخلفاء والعبادلة وزيد بن ثابت ومعاذ بن جبل وأنس وأبي هريرة والباقون يرجعون إليهم ويستفتون منهم وقد ثبت النقل عن أكثرهم صريحا بإيقاع الثلاث ولم يظهر لهم مخالف فماذا بعد الحق إلا الضلال (رد الحتار 3/233)
Answered by: