Q: I have came across the following narration
إِذَا دَخَلَ أَحَدُكُمْ عَلَى أَخِيهِ الْمُسْلِمِ فَأَطْعَمَهُ فَلْيَأْكُلْ مِنْ طَعَامِهِ، وَلَا يَسْأَلُهُ عَنْهُ، وَإِنْ سَقَاهُ شَرَابًا فَلْيَشْرَبْ مِنْ شَرَابِهِ وَلَا يَسْأَلُهُ عَنْهُ،
Is this a general ruling, that as long as one is a Muslim he would be required to eat his food on assumption that it is Halaal because he is a Muslim, regardless of whether it is actually Halaal or Haraam without questioning him?
Would this ruling differ from area to area, and from country to country. In a place such as South Africa, the Muslim community is more cautious regarding Halaal and Haraam and the abattoirs are generally running by a fair enough system in comparison to other countries.
Would the ruling in the above mentioned Hadeeth differ from person to person e.g. if he is a pious person, if he is an Aalim in comparison to him being a open sinner?
What will the ruling be if one is not aware of the condition of his hosts? Would this differ from being given an invitation to eat and voluntary choosing to eat at a restaurant owned by a Muslim?
A: If it is a committed Muslim who is careful about halaal and haraam then you do not need to ask him.
And Allah Ta'ala (الله تعالى) knows best.
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