Those situations where Talaaq does not take place

Q: I wish to mention that +-10 years ago my wife and myself had an argument  and during that argument she claims that I had verbally mentioned talaq 3 times to her. I did not mention that but said, tala tala tila. Both of us engaged with her family regarding this matter. They accepted and said we can carry on living together. During that time we had a baby girl who is currently 7 years of age, and my eldest then who is now 15. We worked together in building our family, invested in property and together furnished a new home. We also travelled abroad and shared family vacations together. Only until recently due to our current issues the talaaq matter came up for no reason. Kindly revert with feedback if the marriage is valid or not?

Q: I live in France. I demanded divorce in court because my husband does not want a divorce, he didn't came to legal summons. After one year and eight months, the judge has pronounced the divorce. I want to know is the divorce valid in Islam? Knowing that I live in France a non-Muslim country and non-Muslim countries judge, and my husband never came in front of me or the court? We did the marriage in Pakistan but with France permission because he comes from Pakistan and me from France but we lived in France. For how long is my time of idatt if divorce is valid?

Q: My wife was feeling very low and sad due to the loss of our baby. I said to her: "I will always want you so long as you want me, and if you don't want me then I won't want you". When I said this bit I was thinking if she ever wants to leave me then I will divorce her. I realised that this may constitute  divorce so after a pause of 3 seconds or so I said: " even if you don't want me I will still want you". A week or so later in a massive argument she said you can divorce me now if you want. I am not sure if she had the intention of divorce when she said this. But later on she said if we have this kind of problem again then she will won't want to get back with me. Does any of this constitute to a divorce.

Q: I am twenty two years. It's been five years I am married. I don't love my husband. I don't feel connected to him. It was a forced marriage. My father forced me so much so that I had to get married. Now my problem is how should I handle my marriage. My husband is good and I respect him, but how much I try, I can't love him. Should I divorce him? Of course he deserves a better wife then me.

Q:

1. I wanted to know if one's parents are separated for more then 20 years, will they be allowed to get back together?

2. What is the rights of that father who has not fulfilled the rights or fardh of his children for more then 22 years and is asking for his rights?

Q: If a girl has got the 'right to divorce' in her nikaah nama, how can she divorce her husband if she needs to?

Q: I am from Saudia Arabia and my wife is from Pakistan. Five months ago I decided to divorce her and I did not make any contact with her for 122 days. I heard if any husband did not make any contact for 4 month 10 days (130 days) while thinking he will divorce, Talaaq takes place. So is my nikaah broken?

Q: I want to ask that if a girl has got the 'right to divorce' in nikah nama, how can she divorce her husband if she needs to? Is it right in Islam for a woman to have this right? and if so, can she divorce her husband just by saying divorce three times (as a man can do) or there is some other strategy for a girl who has got this right (of divorce) by her husband?

Q: I would like to enquire about an argument that occurred between my spouse and myself in 2003. During that time I uttered the word Tala Tala Tila. Since then my wife and I lived together as normal lives until Jan 2013. Recently my wife had a small problem and now stated about that incident whereby I had said those words. I confronted her parents in 2003 about the matter and explained the situation that it was not intentional. My wife is insisting that she heard the words back then. Also to note that we got a baby girl in 2007 who is currently 7 years of age. This has since become a problem and we require clarity as to if the marriage is over? I await your feedback.

Q: If a couple gets separated for some reason and the husband stops paying for the expenditure of his wife after getting separated, does it mean that their marriage has automatically broken? If yes, how long after the separation will the marriage break?