Published 15 hours ago
Last updated 15 hours ago
Q: If one talaaq happened after khalwat e sahiha but before intercourse, would that constitute talaaq e bain?
I have read somewhere that majority of the Hanafi, Maliki and Shafi scholars have a view that its an irrevocable divorce, however the wife will still have to spend the full iddat and will be entitled to full mehar.
A: This is correct. The talaaq issued after khalwat saheehah will be regarded as a baain talaaq (irrevocable talaaq). Iddat will be compulsory upon the wife and she will be entitled to receive the full mahr.
And Allah Ta'ala (الله تعالى) knows best.
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