Q: If one talaaq happened after khalwat e sahiha but before intercourse, would that constitute talaaq e bain?
I have read somewhere that majority of the Hanafi, Maliki and Shafi scholars have a view that its an irrevocable divorce, however the wife will still have to spend the full iddat and will be entitled to full mehar.
Q: If a husband puts a conditional talaaq on his wife, after that if he gives his wife a Talaaq e Baain, does it still constitute as a talaaq?
Q: Does talaq take place if the wife remembers the husband saying talaq as a joke but the husband genuinely does not remember at all? It happened a few months ago when both didn’t have much knowledge about it.
Q: My elder brother, recently and was forced to get divorced from his in laws. He was under so much pressure from them, and he was alone at his rented house, and they all forced him to say yes for the divorce.
But now he is saying that he has not said from his true heart to his wife that I need the divorce from her. So please advise if the divorce is done on his wife or not, because my brother is saying that he has not given her divorce by his heart, but was under pressure from his in laws.
Q: My khala in-low got divorced a month ago. Her husband gave her divorce 6 times. That time khala was on her periods days. Now her ex husband and his family keep saying because of her periods that talaaq was null and void and come back. Please guide us.
Q: I constantly have waswasa regarding different things, such as fears of losing important things and intrusive thoughts about divorce.
Recently, while driving alone, I had thoughts of talaq, and I became worried about accidentally uttering the word and losing my wife. To counter these thoughts, I ended up saying the statement three times "main tumhy talaq deta hon" with my wife's name, thinking it would stop my mind from repeating it in front of her.
However, I later read that divorce in isolation might still be valid. I also consulted an Imam at the Masjid, who assured me that the talaq is not valid. I would appreciate your opinion on this matter.
Q: If a person has 2 wives and he, intending to divorce one says her name then explicit words of divorce like "Maryam I....(explicit words)" but at the time of sayings the words he has his other wife who he didn't want to divorce come to his mind.
Does it mean he accidentally gave divorce to the other wife (named Zainab) which he didn't intend to?
Q: Does divorce happen if a person is in private, without anyone around, says the words of divorce towards his wife with intention to do it?
Q: My husband was under the influence of drugs and hasn't been sleeping for the last five days, affecting his overall mental state. He got angry and said talaaq to me three times. He is not himself due to his mental state and said this out of anger. Are the talaaqs issued valid?
Q: My husband and I were in an argument and both of us were very angry so when I said to him to give me talaq, he said you are farigh from my side but since I didnt know about the meaning of this word farigh, I didn't paid attention to it. After that 5 years passed and I also gave birth to our third baby.
Now, after asking one mufti about this, he said to me that the talaq was valid and when I asked my husband about this, he said I never said that you are farigh, rather I said farigh kardunga. Please help and I also dont remember it very much because years have passed.