Emergence of Dajjaal
Q: I want to know if Dajjal really appeared in the world?
Q: I want to know if Dajjal really appeared in the world?
Q: Can you please explain what are the definitions of:
1. Muraabahah
2. Ijaarah
Q: Is praise an attribute of Allah?
Q: Is there a cure for self-hate (from an Islamic perspective)?
Q: With regard to women's clothing, when a woman is going out, how must she be dressed? Mostly in today's time with outdoor activity, how must she be dressed (example: swimming, picnics, etc.). Please give some explanation.
Q: How to prevent influence from society?
Q: Is wudhu required during sa’ee?
A: Being in the state of wudhu during sa’ee is not a condition for the validity of the sa’ee. However, it is preferable for one to perform the sa’ee in the state of wudhu.
And Allah Ta'ala (الله تعالى) knows best.
Q: Insha Allah, our masjid will be doing some extensions. We will be extending by putting an upper floor. I wanted to find out, if the ground floor has a masjid and a sehen, is it permissible for us to make the entire upper floor a masjid without having a sehen?
For example, if the bottom floor is 500 square meters (300 sqm is the masjid and 200 sqm sehen). Can we make the entire upper floor (500 sqm) masjid?
Q: There is a situation please guide:
Under shariah law, is it true that if a man gives the file of his property to someone and verbally says to that person that by giving his file to him he has become the owner of his property without signing the transfer papers. Is it true that in this case the one given the file will become the owner of the property eventhough the transfer of ownership papers were not signed rather only the file was handed over?
Firstly, when the original owner handed over the file he did intend to give the property to his brother. Obviously along with his actions, he is also required to express his intention in words to complete the transaction islamically. The words that he used while giving the file were only "I intend to" he didn't complete the sentence by saying "give the property to his brother". So in such a situation will his actions and words that he used do they denote the transfer of the property?
Secondly, the original owner is refusing to sign the transfer documents because he says that he is still the owner of the property and wants to keep it for his children's future. If the recipient is given the transfer document his children will be deprived of the asset. He says, until he signs the papers, he still remains the owner of the property while his brother believes he is now the actual owner of the property. From the shariah point of view whose stance is correct? This has caused a dispute in the family, hence clarification will be required in the matter.
Q: In a town where there is 1 masjid and few jamaat khanas. Will it be permissible to establish Jumuah in the jamaat khanas also?
The furtherst jamaat khana not being further than 5 min away with a car and 5 times namaaz is also not taking place in most of the jamaat khanas?