Q: If a man does not have jima' with his wife but foreplay etc takes place, will she be regarded as ghair madkhool bihaa when it comes to talaaq?
Meaning can he give her talaaq in haidh and would she be baain after one talaaq?
Q: My wife was married before and her husband had passed away , after 4 months of the death of her late husband we got married, my wife came into the marriage with a lot of anger towards life and also couldn't understand why the almighty took her late husband, this made huge fights in our marriage and I gave her 3 talaaqs at one stage. We chose to ignore these because it was said out of anger I also said it to her to scare her and never meant it, as our marriage continued it got worse and on 3 other occasions I said talaaq, but none with any intention. I'm a very emotional man and have a lot of anger. My wife or I never ever left the house because she had no where to go, she is 4 months pregnant now and we having a baby girl, we still live together, but of lately I been seeking the truth, I read somewhere that if you say talaq out of anger it doesn't count? I also read that a woman must agree to a talaq? As women have rights in marriage as we'll. According to some references it must be done in good honour and never labour the next partner? I feel like the talaqs were said out of my own immaturity and my wife shouldn't be punished for it. Are we divorced?
Q: My husband and I have been married since last year July. During this time we have had a tumultuous relationship whereby he verbally gave me talaaq on more than three different occasions. We assumed it was said out of anger and no other processes where taken like the 3 month waiting period or witnesses to say we tried reconciling. I am currently 4 months pregnant and we do not wish to be divorced, for the baby's sake of course and because we wish to have a life together. We have consulted two moulanas and they say our marriage was over with the first talaq given. My question is if the proper process for idaah or that waiting period for reconciliation was not given to us how can our divorce be valid (I do know about the viewpoint that if its said out of anger it is not accepted and we do take how serious the words are, we have both made mistakes). Is there any way forward for us, can he ask for "ruju" because we were not given information on the proper process. We have been together since, but my husband is no longer in the house due to the moulana saying its haram. For our future and the baby is there a way to reconcile? We do not want to be divorced and even after the talaq was verbally said in anger we would reconcile. Please help me with information and a way forward?
Q: While having an argument a wife said I need to think about what I want in life.The husband responded; If that is the case you take a divorce one time and go. Is this talaaqul muallaq if so has the divorce fallen?
Q: When husband and wife are quarrelling and out of anger he says: Do you know what is Thalak and it is Thalak (1 x) while looking at her. Did he give her talaaq? And if he did what must she do?
Q: While we were fighting on some issue I said to my wife that Me tumhain talaq deta hu 2 times. One time clearly and the 2nd time she kept her hand on my mouth so words were not delivered clearly. That time I was in anger. After that I felt that I have done a big mistake. We love each other and never thought to leave each other. Please guide us what is the state of our relation?
Q: Need to know if husband says in arguement ek Talaaq jou ek Talaaq ek Talaaq jou. I did not do iddat, as I didn't understand. This happened ten ago. Please advise if I am Divorced and living in Haraam?
Q: I have a question about my situation with my wife. We were not fighting over anything only I was stopping her from going to a friend’s place. I said to her that ‘I can’t stop you from going to your friends home, tum meri taraf say azad ho, you can go to her place or but my son can’t go with you…you can go wherever you want to go’. I said that twice exactly *mere traf sa tum Azad ho, tumhei main nahi rok sakta liken mera beta us ke ghar nahi jaie ga*. I did not have any intention of divorce because I cannot think of this act. I am worried about my choice of words as I used the word ‘azaad’. I am so confused and I had no idea that the word ‘azaad’ also refers to divorce. Please guide.
Q: Is it counted as talaaq if a man tells everyone that he divorced his wife even though he never mentioned the words talaaq to her. Is she divorced from him by him telling people that he divorced her.
Q: I want to know that if a man divorces his wife when she has her monthly, is it counted?