Q: I have a very important question. If a guy says to his wife طلقتك Then after 5 mins says it again then he says that you have become haram upon me and I have become haram upon you, this phrase is talaaq baa'in which means they just need new nikah. But due to saying طلقتك twice does divorce take place?
Q: I'd like to know something regarding talaaq. I am an ex-recovering addict. I used drugs and I got married in 2012 and 6 months later in a rage of anger and not in the right frame of mind I sent an email to my wife giving her 3 talaqs. It's now 2014. I have rehabilitated myself and have been thinking a lot about what I've done and wondering whether my talaaq are valid or not?
Q: If one says "Me talaaq deta" but hasn't said "houn" (so the sentence "Me talaaq deta houn" hasn't been said), does that count as a divorce?
Q: My husband divorced me many times in anger so is the divorce valid? Now he says that he was out of control.
Q:
1. Is talaaq given during pregnancy valid.
2. Can nikah be performed to a pregnant woman, i.e. If she fell pregnant before marriage.
Q: My cousin brother gave talaak to his wife while in pregnancy. Is this valid because someone told me that while in pregnancy the talaaq is invalid. Please let me know because my cousin brother has given talaaq angrily? Is there any chance or is the talaaq valid?
Q: Can I be forced to give a talaaq or can a fasakh be given if my wife has decided she wants out of the marriage?
Q: My husband has filed for a divorce according to usa state law which requires us to be separated for 6 months and in between we can reconcile. I want to know the value of this notice Islamically? Also he says he has done istikhara in which the signs say that he should not divorce still he says he will because his parents want. What does Islam say about it?
Q: I have signed on a piece of blank paper and gave this paper to my legal advocate as he required this paper for some legal actions against my wife as she was filling some false cases in the court. When I was out of town my advocate prepared a divorce deed on the blank paper signed by me to counter the false cases initiated by my wife against me. This divorce letter was sent to my wife a month ago and now my wife wants to settle the issues between us and wants to return to me as my wife. Please advice if this divorce can be revocable or not? Pleaase note that I never had any intention of divorcing her. Also I never said verbal talaaq word in front of her. Please I need your advice urgently as already one month and 15 days have passed from the date that letter was sent to my wife who is residing with her parents in a different city.
Q: If a man does not have jima' with his wife but foreplay etc takes place, will she be regarded as ghair madkhool bihaa when it comes to talaaq?
Meaning can he give her talaaq in haidh and would she be baain after one talaaq?